Does "Until" Mean What You Think It Means? (Matthew 1:25)

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Moonwood

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A common claim is that Matthew 1:25 proves Joseph and Mary had marital relations after Jesus' birth because Joseph "did not know Her until She had given birth to a son."

But that argument assumes something the text itself never says.

In Matthew 1:25, "knew" (ginosko) is a standard biblical idiom for sexual relations. The question is not the meaning of "knew," but the meaning of "until" (heos).

In Koine Greek and throughout Scripture, heos does not inherently imply that the opposite condition began afterward. Sometimes a change follows the stated boundary; sometimes it does not. The word itself does not determine the outcome.

For example, before the flood Noah remained in the ark until the waters receded, after which he left the ark. The change comes from the context, not from the word "until" itself.

Consider also 2 Samuel 6:23:

"Michal the daughter of Saul had no child until the day of her death."

No one concludes that Michal began bearing children after she died. Here, "until" marks a boundary, not a reversal of the previous condition.

Matthew uses the same construction. His concern is not Joseph and Mary's later married life. His concern is the Virgin Birth.

The surrounding context makes this clear. Matthew has just explained that Mary's child was conceived by the Holy Spirit (Matthew 1:20-23). Then he adds:

"He did not know Her until She had given birth to a Son."

The purpose is to exclude Joseph as the source of the conception and reinforce the fulfillment of Isaiah 7:14. Matthew is safeguarding the truth of Christ's divine origin, not making a statement about what happened after the Nativity.

Matthew 1:25 tells us what did not happen before Jesus' birth. It tells us nothing about what did or did not happen afterward.

Matthew does not tell us what happened after Jesus' birth. Therefore, the verse itself cannot be used as proof that marital relations did occur afterward. That conclusion must come from somewhere other than Matthew 1:25.

The verse establishes the Virgin Birth. It does not tell us whether Joseph and Mary later had marital relations. Reading that conclusion into the text goes beyond what Matthew actually says.
 
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Moonwood

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But, the text tells us that Joseph did not have sex with Mary until Jesus was born! That is what it say in plain simple unreinterpreted language.

un·til

/ ˌənˈtil, ənˈtil /
preposition
  1. up to (the point in time or the event mentioned):
    "the kidnappers have given us until October 11th to deliver the documents" · "he held the office until his death" · "we didn't find that out until recently"
    Synonyms
    till
    up to
    pending
    through
    before
    prior to
    Antonyms
    beyond
    after
conjunction
  1. up to the point in time or the event mentioned:
    "you don't know what you can achieve until you try"

  2. The point of reference that until lspeaks of is sex and waiting to after Jesus was born.

The problem with your argument is that you're assuming the word "until" automatically means the opposite happened afterward. But that's not how "until" works in either ordinary language or Scripture.

Matthew 1:25 says Joseph "did not know her until she had given birth to a son." The verse clearly tells us what did not happen before Jesus' birth. It does not explicitly tell us what happened afterward.

We can see this from other biblical examples. In 2 Samuel 6:23, "Michal the daughter of Saul had no child until the day of her death." Nobody concludes she started having children after she died. The word "until" marks a point in time, but it does not by itself require a reversal afterward.

The context of Matthew 1 is also important. Matthew's purpose is to establish the Virgin Birth, not to discuss Joseph and Mary's later married life. The whole passage focuses on showing that Jesus was conceived by the Holy Spirit and not by Joseph (Matthew 1:20-23). Verse 25 continues that point by emphasizing that Joseph had no marital relations with Mary before Jesus was born.

So the question is not whether "until" can sometimes be followed by a change. Of course it can. The question is whether Matthew 1:25 states that such a change occurred. It does not.

Therefore, Matthew 1:25 proves the Virgin Birth. It does not prove that Joseph and Mary had marital relations afterward. To reach that conclusion, you must appeal to evidence outside of this verse, because the verse itself is silent on what happened after Jesus' birth.