Genesis 1 and 2

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Templar81

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I was just wondering why Genesis 1 and 2 have two different creation stories and in particular why they deal with the origin of man so differently. Why is God portrayed so differently in genesis 1 to genesis 2 and why is he called Elohim in 1 and Yaweh in 2? Is this evidence of two different writing styles? In Genesis 1 Adam and Eve can eat whatever they want but in 2 there is the tree of Knowledge..

Just wodnered if anyone has any thoughts on this.
 

aspen

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I was just wondering why Genesis 1 and 2 have two different creation stories and in particular why they deal with the origin of man so differently. Why is God portrayed so differently in genesis 1 to genesis 2 and why is he called Elohim in 1 and Yaweh in 2? Is this evidence of two different writing styles? In Genesis 1 Adam and Eve can eat whatever they want but in 2 there is the tree of Knowledge..

Just wodnered if anyone has any thoughts on this.
Inspired stories - a revelation to Moses, meant to communicate a profound truth to Moses - we are no longer in communion with our Creator because of our own actions. Thankfully our creator took matters into His own hands later.
 

Templar81

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I know what you mean but not our actions, Adam and Eve's actions surely..

I used to think the whole of the Pentatuch was written personally by Moses but I'm not so sure now. I would guess that he got the basic accounts down but probably somewhere down the line, someone ahs been doing some edditting. We know for example that the book of Isaiah has at least three authors and was probably written over centuries.
 

tomwebster

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I was just wondering why Genesis 1 and 2 have two different creation stories and in particular why they deal with the origin of man so differently. Why is God portrayed so differently in genesis 1 to genesis 2 and why is he called Elohim in 1 and Yaweh in 2? Is this evidence of two different writing styles? In Genesis 1 Adam and Eve can eat whatever they want but in 2 there is the tree of Knowledge..

Just wodnered if anyone has any thoughts on this.


t81, you have asked this same type of creation question a number of times now, what's your point? Are you not getting the answer you want or do you just like starting arguments?
 

Robbie

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Didn't seem conflicting to me...

In 1 it's talking about all the trees that were food trees...

In 2 it talks about food trees but then it says ALSO in the garden were the tree of life and the tree of the knowledge of good an evil.
 

FHII

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I was just wondering why Genesis 1 and 2 have two different creation stories and in particular why they deal with the origin of man so differently. Why is God portrayed so differently in genesis 1 to genesis 2 and why is he called Elohim in 1 and Yaweh in 2? Is this evidence of two different writing styles? In Genesis 1 Adam and Eve can eat whatever they want but in 2 there is the tree of Knowledge..

Just wodnered if anyone has any thoughts on this.
Well, here's my theory on at least one of your questions. It's not the accounts of the same creation, but rather an evolving of the creation of one being: Adam. In Genesis 1 Adam is created in the likeness of God: a spiritual being. He was both male and female. In Genesis 2:7 he's formed of dust and the breath of God is his life. He's a spiritual being in an earthly body. In 2:21 God separated the woman (not yet Eve, and she didn't exist alone before 2 21). By the end of Genesis 3 Adam is fully human with blood and mortal flesh, and so is Eve.

Wild, I know... But consider the scripture on the three chapters and let me know if there is contradictions. I really want to know if there are. Is it possible for my theory so far?

Now, consider Jesus who was called the second Adam. Born fully man and of flesh and blood. Died. Appeared a spiritual man without blood but the breath of God was in him (all the blood was drained from his body while on the cross.... Remember the spear between his rib). Then, in Acts chapter one, his physical yet immortal flesh (without blood) disapeared and Jesus became once again a spiritual being solely. It was a total reversal of what the phases of Adam went through.

Rememer... When he appeared to Thomas, he challenged him to put his (Thomas') fingers in the holes in his hand. Thomas didn't by the way.... But the flesh without blood was still there. Yet, the blood was drained out of Jesus.

This is totally unconventional, I realize, to what many churches teach, but I ask you only consider it, and research it within the scriptures. I gave you a quick theory, so if you have questions, please let me know. Also, I acknowledge I didn't answer other questions.....
 

veteran

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Well, here's my theory on at least one of your questions. It's not the accounts of the same creation, but rather an evolving of the creation of one being: Adam. In Genesis 1 Adam is created in the likeness of God: a spiritual being. He was both male and female. In Genesis 2:7 he's formed of dust and the breath of God is his life. He's a spiritual being in an earthly body. In 2:21 God separated the woman (not yet Eve, and she didn't exist alone before 2 21). By the end of Genesis 3 Adam is fully human with blood and mortal flesh, and so is Eve.

Wild, I know... But consider the scripture on the three chapters and let me know if there is contradictions. I really want to know if there are. Is it possible for my theory so far?

That idea of Adam made both male and female at the same time is the pagan belief of androgyn attributes which many of them assigned to their ancient pagan gods. It has continued today through movements that push confusion between the male and female attributes. It's not how the man Adam was created, nor any of the races of mankind.

In the Hebrew of Gen.1:26-27, there's a distinction between creation of 'aadam' (man), and 'eth ha aadam' (the man Adam). Hebrew aadam without the article and particle is like saying 'mankind' in the Hebrew. But eth ha aadam with the article and particle is pointing to a specific man (Adam). It's about God creating the races of mankind (aadam) both females and males at the same time, and then a separate creation of the specific man Adam (eth ha aadam). The Adam of Gen.2:7 is eth ha aadam, a specific man which God placed in His Garden to till the soil.


Now, consider Jesus who was called the second Adam. Born fully man and of flesh and blood. Died. Appeared a spiritual man without blood but the breath of God was in him (all the blood was drained from his body while on the cross.... Remember the spear between his rib). Then, in Acts chapter one, his physical yet immortal flesh (without blood) disapeared and Jesus became once again a spiritual being solely. It was a total reversal of what the phases of Adam went through.

You're confusing the resurrection with a flesh body. Christ's body was tranfigured to the resurrection body. The resurrection body is not a ghost; it is very much like the flesh body, but not flesh and blood. We know this per Scripture because of the example angels appearing on earth to God's servants and their eating man's food (like Gen.18 and 19). Hebrews 13 declares for us to be mindful to entertain strangers, because some have entertained angels unaware. The resurrection body does not require one to be changed to a flesh body to appear on earth in our dimension.


Rememer... When he appeared to Thomas, he challenged him to put his (Thomas') fingers in the holes in his hand. Thomas didn't by the way.... But the flesh without blood was still there. Yet, the blood was drained out of Jesus.

Any idea that Christ's resurrection body was like a 'zombie' dead body is supposition. The resurrection is not like some walking dead zombie Hollywood horror story. How confused can one get? Christ's flesh body was transfigured, with the marks of His crucifixion, to the resurrection body. Flesh cannot suddenly appear out of nowhwere, like Christ did to His disciples in a closed off room. Likewise with the angels that appeared to God's servants per Scripture.


This is totally unconventional, I realize, to what many churches teach, but I ask you only consider it, and research it within the scriptures. I gave you a quick theory, so if you have questions, please let me know. Also, I acknowledge I didn't answer other questions.....

Not just unconventional, but un-Scriptural.
 

Insight

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"Genesis is the seed-plot of the whole Bible; and it is essential to the true understanding of its every part. It is the foundation on which the divine revelation rests" Bullinger.
Genesis chapter one is The Parable of the Pentateuch.
Insight
 

FHII

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That idea of Adam made both male and female at the same time is the pagan belief of androgyn attributes which many of them assigned to their ancient pagan gods. It has continued today through movements that push confusion between the male and female attributes. It's not how the man Adam was created, nor any of the races of mankind.

I am not familar with pagan religions. However, in the first 5 chapters it is appearent that Adam was first created then Woman from Adam. As for any movements that push confusion between the sexes, it is really not part of this discussion, at least at my end.
In the Hebrew of Gen.1:26-27, there's a distinction between creation of 'aadam' (man), and 'eth ha aadam' (the man Adam). Hebrew aadam without the article and particle is like saying 'mankind' in the Hebrew. But eth ha aadam with the article and particle is pointing to a specific man (Adam). It's about God creating the races of mankind (aadam) both females and males at the same time, and then a separate creation of the specific man Adam (eth ha aadam). The Adam of Gen.2:7 is eth ha aadam, a specific man which God placed in His Garden to till the soil.

This is not so according to my Strongs Greek dictionary. From what I read it could be either. Sentance structure does note that he was talking about a "them". However, how many men do you believe God created in verses 26 and 27? As we shall see, Woman was not yet formed at this point unless you believe Genesis 2 runs parallel to Genesis 1. Chapter 5 also will bear explaining if you believe that Woman and Adam were formed as separate beings.

Man was formed in Gen 2:7 out of the dust of the earth and the breath of life was given to him.

Gen 2:7 And the LORD God formed man of the dust of the ground, and breathed into his nostrils the breath of life; and man became a living soul.
Genesis 1:26-7 says that man was formed in the image of God. I do not know where in the Bible God is ever described as being "dust of the earth" (which with reason we can call "flesh"). In other words, what God formed in Gen 1 was a spiritual being. What God formed in Gen 2 was a spiritual being in immortal flesh with the God's breath (not blood) sustaining his life.



Woman was not created until Genesis 2:21-2. This verse clearly shows that Woman was taken from Adam's body (his rib) and it was some time after Gen 1:27 and/or 2:7. It may be that Adam was fully man with no "woman" attributes, but whatever Woman became, it came from Adam. she wasn't a separate creation from Adam, but they were either created as the same being, or Woman came from the creation of Adam.

Let's look at Genesis 5:1-2:
Gen 5:1 This is the book of the generations of Adam. In the day that God created man, in the likeness of God made he him;
Gen 5:2 Male and female created he them; and blessed them, and called their name Adam, in the day when they were created.
In these verses it says God created man, in the likeness of God he was created (singular) and God called THEIR (plural) name Adam (Singular). Woman's or Eve's original name was "Adam", as she was a part of Adam.

You're confusing the resurrection with a flesh body. Christ's body was tranfigured to the resurrection body. The resurrection body is not a ghost; it is very much like the flesh body, but not flesh and blood. We know this per Scripture because of the example angels appearing on earth to God's servants and their eating man's food (like Gen.18 and 19). Hebrews 13 declares for us to be mindful to entertain strangers, because some have entertained angels unaware. The resurrection body does not require one to be changed to a flesh body to appear on earth in our dimension.

I am not confusing them. Christ, born in sinful flesh, died, and was risen to an immortal, spiritual fleshly body that yes, had no blood (like Adam when he had the breath of life), could walk through walls or somehow appear in a closed room and yet was still solid matter as we know it.

Any idea that Christ's resurrection body was like a 'zombie' dead body is supposition. The resurrection is not like some walking dead zombie Hollywood horror story. How confused can one get? Christ's flesh body was transfigured, with the marks of His crucifixion, to the resurrection body. Flesh cannot suddenly appear out of nowhwere, like Christ did to His disciples in a closed off room. Likewise with the angels that appeared to God's servants per Scripture.

I have no idea why you are talking about zombies and horror stories and whatnot... When you start talking about that, it is confusing. I am certainly not confused so I'm not sure who you are saying is confused.
Adam is likened as the first Christ in 1 Cor 15:45, and is again compared in Romans 5:14. In 1 Cor the order of events is reversed between Christ and Adam. One was made a spirit, received immortal flesh that could do things our flesh couldn't and then fell to mortal and sinful flesh; the other was born in mortal and sinful flesh, was ressurected as immortal flesh, and became a spiritual body.
 

veteran

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I am not familar with pagan religions. However, in the first 5 chapters it is appearent that Adam was first created then Woman from Adam. As for any movements that push confusion between the sexes, it is really not part of this discussion, at least at my end.

You may not want that to be about pagan ideas of history, but that's where the dual sexual attributes for Adam is coming from. It certainly IS NOT coming from God's Holy Writ, that's for certain. I don't think you intend to make that parallel intentionally. I've read enough of your posts to figure you wouldn't intend such ideas.

This is not so according to my Strongs Greek dictionary. From what I read it could be either. Sentance structure does note that he was talking about a "them". However, how many men do you believe God created in verses 26 and 27? As we shall see, Woman was not yet formed at this point unless you believe Genesis 2 runs parallel to Genesis 1. Chapter 5 also will bear explaining if you believe that Woman and Adam were formed as separate beings.

Consider going the next level in study of God's Word. Get yourself an Interlinear Bible of the Hebrew and Greek. I recommend the Green's Interlinear. Bullinger, an excellent 19th century Christian Hebrew scholar, also covered the Hebrew difference of those verses in his KJV study Bible called The Companion Bible. You'll find it there also if you don't want to consult an Interlinear Bible of the manuscripts. It's about this kind of difference...


Gen 1:26-27
26 And God said, Let Us make man (aadam) in Our image, after Our likeness: andlet them have dominion over the fish of the sea, and over the fowl of the air, and over the cattle, and over all the earth, and over every creeping thing that creepeth upon the earth.
27 So God created man (eth ha aadam) in His Own image, in the image of God created He him; male and female created He them.
(KJV)


Gen 2:7
7 And the LORD God formed man (eth ha aadam) of the dust of the ground, and breathed into his nostrils the breath of life; and man became a living soul.
(KJV)

aadam = mankind
eth ha aadam = this particular man Adam

In the Hebrew with the word aadam by itself, it's the same as saying mankind in general. But with the Hebrew article and particle as with eth ha aadam, it means a specific singular man. In the deeper sense of those verses also, the addam (mankind) is created with the outward "likeness", but with the eth ha aadam he is created with God's Own Image (Hebrew tselem written twice for emphasis). It's pointing ultimately to a specific man Adam which God placed in His Garden to till the soil, for the purpose of the start of Christ's lineage separate from the other peoples of mankind created and placed outside His Garden, like in "the land of Nod."

There are other indicators later in God's Word that He created all the different races of man on that 6th day, and not just the man Adam He placed in His Garden. None of the root races evolved, they were created by God on the 6th day. Anything else is the theory of evolution. That's why even still for today, two people of one race does not produce offspring of another race. God in the beginning created the races how He wanted them to be.



Man was formed in Gen 2:7 out of the dust of the earth and the breath of life was given to him.

Gen 2:7 And the LORD God formed man of the dust of the ground, and breathed into his nostrils the breath of life; and man became a living soul.
Genesis 1:26-7 says that man was formed in the image of God. I do not know where in the Bible God is ever described as being "dust of the earth" (which with reason we can call "flesh"). In other words, what God formed in Gen 1 was a spiritual being. What God formed in Gen 2 was a spiritual being in immortal flesh with the God's breath (not blood) sustaining his life.

The "breath of life" God breathed into Adam's flesh was about God placing Adam's soul and spirit in a flesh formed body, the same spiritual operation we go through, except we go through birth in our mother's womb. And of course Adam's flesh was of flesh of blood, we know because of Gen.2:24 about man and woman joining to become "one flesh", which is about offspring descending from both mother and father. The idea of flesh death was not yet, but it would soon come after that per the sin in God's Garden. The idea that God created their flesh to be eternally immortal is man's supposition of not understanding why God created flesh Adam (so Christ's Salvation by His ordained crucifixion before the foundation of the world could come).


Woman was not created until Genesis 2:21-2. This verse clearly shows that Woman was taken from Adam's body (his rib) and it was some time after Gen 1:27 and/or 2:7. It may be that Adam was fully man with no "woman" attributes, but whatever Woman became, it came from Adam. she wasn't a separate creation from Adam, but they were either created as the same being, or Woman came from the creation of Adam.

Per the Hebrew with aadam, and the Gen.1:27 end phrase of "male and female created He them", it reveals God created the races of 'mankind' on His 6th day, and also the man Adam (eth ha aadam). It was specifically Eve that God made from the rib (curve per Hebrew, like DNA) of the man Adam (eth ha aadam).


Let's look at Genesis 5:1-2:
Gen 5:1 This is the book of the generations of Adam. In the day that God created man, in the likeness of God made he him;
Gen 5:2 Male and female created he them; and blessed them, and called their name Adam, in the day when they were created.

In these verses it says God created man, in the likeness of God he was created (singular) and God called THEIR (plural) name Adam (Singular). Woman's or Eve's original name was "Adam", as she was a part of Adam.

Yep, the word 'aadam' (Adam) is actually what's in the Hebrew there, even when Adam is capitalized as a pronoun, it applies to all mankind. So all mankind is being included in that with verse 2, but not in verse 1 which is about a specific man Adam which God created in His Own Likeness from which Christ would be born through.


I am not confusing them. Christ, born in sinful flesh, died, and was risen to an immortal, spiritual fleshly body that yes, had no blood (like Adam when he had the breath of life), could walk through walls or somehow appear in a closed room and yet was still solid matter as we know it.

Wtihout going into the Hebrew, it's impossible to know about the two distinctions between the races of aadam vs. the man Adam as eth ha aadam. The KJV Bible doesn't bring that distinction forth into English.

The "spiritual body" Paul taught, also calling it the "image of the heavenly", is the angelic state. There's only 2 different dimensions of existence written in God's Word. There's this earthy dimension we live in with a flesh body image, and then there's the heavenly dimension which image is not one of flesh of blood, like Paul also taught in 1 Cor.15:50. One image is mortal, the other one isn't. One is made up of earthly elements, the other is made up of Spirit from God. When we die, we cast off the earthy image of flesh and blood.


I have no idea why you are talking about zombies and horror stories and whatnot... When you start talking about that, it is confusing. I am certainly not confused so I'm not sure who you are saying is confused.
Adam is likened as the first Christ in 1 Cor 15:45, and is again compared in Romans 5:14. In 1 Cor the order of events is reversed between Christ and Adam. One was made a spirit, received immortal flesh that could do things our flesh couldn't and then fell to mortal and sinful flesh; the other was born in mortal and sinful flesh, was ressurected as immortal flesh, and became a spiritual body.

It's because of how confused some are about the type of body the resurrection is.

It's not a body of this same dimension which we live in today. It's that simple. Even our Lord Jesus' flesh body was 'transfigured' to the heavenly resurrection type body to show that, even still having the wounds of His crucifixion to show what He did for us, and that it will always be remembered. Further, what if Christ's flesh body had not been transfigured, but found still in the tomb after three days and nights like our flesh body would have been? The unbelieving scribes and Pharisees would then have had substance to their argument that God did not raise our Lord Jesus!

Apostle Paul was very clear about the differences between our flesh body of "corruption" not being that body which shall be. That's why he said corruption CANNOT inherit incorruption in the 1 Cor.15 chapter. It's why he made distinct comparisons between a body of flesh and a spiritual body. Calling a flesh body like we have today a spiritual body is confusion, big time!

A flesh body like we have today cannot walk through walls. Try it. The flesh body has bounds set for this present world. It is not of the world to come. But the "spiritual body", that's a different matter, because it's of a different dimension than this earthly dimension. Does the "spiritual body" have substance? Yes. But not the kind of material matter we can assign like our flesh body has. It would have to be of a much, much, finer substance than science knows of today. And that's what the other dimension of existence is about, which is the heavenly where God dwells. This is why angels per God's Word have often suddenly appeared right in the direct presence of God's servants. And if I recall, it frightened a lot of those servants when they saw them suddenly appear out of nowhere. All those Bible examples exist to reveal this difference.
 

FHII

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Been under the weather, Vet, that's why I haven't gotten back to you. Last time I read your last post I said, "huh"? Will get back to this when I can think with a clear head.
 

Templar81

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It makes me wonder if the humans in Genesis 1 were not Adam and Eve and never lvied in Adam and Eve, so that by the time Adam and Eve were ejected from Eden there was already a human population. That would certainly account for archeological evidence of humans before 4000 BC.
 

FHII

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It makes me wonder if the humans in Genesis 1 were not Adam and Eve and never lvied in Adam and Eve, so that by the time Adam and Eve were ejected from Eden there was already a human population. That would certainly account for archeological evidence of humans before 4000 BC.

Well, it could be, but not by verse 27 and 28.

Veteran wrote:

"You may not want that to be about pagan ideas of history, but that's where the dual sexual attributes for Adam is coming from. It certainly IS NOT coming from God's Holy Writ, that's for certain. I don't think you intend to make that parallel intentionally. I've read enough of your posts to figure you wouldn't intend such ideas."

Well, I suppose that is somewhat of a compliment in a way. So thankyou. I am not speaking of Adam having feminate qualities. I am saying that the Bible says Woman was taken from Adam. She was made Woman from something that was in Adam.

Veteran:

"Consider going the next level in study of God's Word. Get yourself an Interlinear Bible of the Hebrew and Greek. I recommend the Green's Interlinear. Bullinger, an excellent 19th century Christian Hebrew scholar, also covered the Hebrew difference of those verses in his KJV study Bible called The Companion Bible. You'll find it there also if you don't want to consult an Interlinear Bible of the manuscripts. It's about this kind of difference..."

I'll consider it. I like word study and such. However, I still go by the authority of the English Bible first (in my case the KJV), and I do not suspect picking apart words will change my opinion.

You have said that aadam = all of mankind. I don't think and see it that way. I'm studying it and looking into it, but there are some things we both should consider. First, it doesn't always mean all of mankind. According to the Stongs it could mean either all of Mankind or a single person. Second, I simply reject at this time (and with all due respect; without any ill thoughts) reject your belief on what you said about Genesis 5.

As much as I like Strongs, and as much as I might enjoy any other interlinear Bible, I must for now stay within the confines of one Bible, and for me that's the KJV. I have my reasons, and they are specifically that I don't become a Bible jumper. I'll explain that if you like.
 

veteran

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It makes me wonder if the humans in Genesis 1 were not Adam and Eve and never lvied in Adam and Eve, so that by the time Adam and Eve were ejected from Eden there was already a human population. That would certainly account for archeological evidence of humans before 4000 BC.

I believe it was the Assyriologist Sayce that originally translated the date of Sargon I appearing in ancient Sumer at 3800 B.C. Per Bishop Ussher's Bible chronology Annals Of The World, he traced Adam in God's Garden to 4004 B.C., a mere 204 years difference between Adam and Sargon. Yet Sayce later... changed the 3800 B.C. date of his original translation from the Assyrian tablets to fit more in line with the then existing views of the field of Assyriology (See Bristowe's footnote documentation about this in Sargon The Magnificent).

Because of that, I believe Cain was actually Sargon I who suddenly appears among the Sumerians in ancient Sumer. That would mean that ancient Sumer was the "land of Nod" where Cain went, to a different people that already existed there.
 

veteran

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Well, it could be, but not by verse 27 and 28.

Veteran wrote:

"You may not want that to be about pagan ideas of history, but that's where the dual sexual attributes for Adam is coming from. It certainly IS NOT coming from God's Holy Writ, that's for certain. I don't think you intend to make that parallel intentionally. I've read enough of your posts to figure you wouldn't intend such ideas."

Well, I suppose that is somewhat of a compliment in a way. So thankyou. I am not speaking of Adam having feminate qualities. I am saying that the Bible says Woman was taken from Adam. She was made Woman from something that was in Adam.

The manuscript word for "rib" is pointing to the side of the body, hence rib in the KJV, but most women have the same number of ribs as man. A rib is curved, and that's what quite of few scholars believe is being intended, and I agree, the idea of a 'curve', which would point to the DNA helix curve; meaning... God made woman from Adam by the DNA helix curve, of which a rib symbolizes that.
 

veteran

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Veteran:

"Consider going the next level in study of God's Word. Get yourself an Interlinear Bible of the Hebrew and Greek. I recommend the Green's Interlinear. Bullinger, an excellent 19th century Christian Hebrew scholar, also covered the Hebrew difference of those verses in his KJV study Bible called The Companion Bible. You'll find it there also if you don't want to consult an Interlinear Bible of the manuscripts. It's about this kind of difference..."

I'll consider it. I like word study and such. However, I still go by the authority of the English Bible first (in my case the KJV), and I do not suspect picking apart words will change my opinion.

That's OK, because Bible context in the KJV is usually pretty good overall, even with its Old English grammar. But with some difficult passages, the context is difficult without going some into the manuscripts. In Acts 12:4 with the word "Easter", it's not in the Greek manuscripts, yet because of tradition the KJV translators added it, when the actual word is 'passover', which they correctly rendered in all other cases. In some Old Testament chapters, the KJV translators didn't translate the meaning of names and places from the Hebrew which help spell out the main Message of the chapter. So there are things that can be missed without going into the manuscripts or at least by using a Lexicon.

For me, the 1611 KJV Bible is still the best and most accurate English translation to date. In the original 1st edition 1611 KJV Bible, the translators included a 'Letter To The Reader' warning about problems they had in the translation. You can still get a copy of the original 1st Edition 1611 KJV from Thomas Nelson Publishers. The 1st Edition included the Apocrypha, a Letter To The Reader, and a Letter To King James, Defender Of The Faith. Those have since been removed from later editions.


You have said that aadam = all of mankind. I don't think and see it that way. I'm studying it and looking into it, but there are some things we both should consider. First, it doesn't always mean all of mankind. According to the Stongs it could mean either all of Mankind or a single person. Second, I simply reject at this time (and with all due respect; without any ill thoughts) reject your belief on what you said about Genesis 5.

aadam by itself, especially when eth ha aadam occurs along with it, are clear distinctions.

Gen 5:1-2
1 This is the book of the generations of Adam (Aadaam). In the day that God created man (aadaam), in the likeness of God made He him;
2 Male and female created He them; and blessed them, and called their name Adam (aadaam), in the day when they were created.
(KJV)


This from Vine's word studies...

"MAN
This noun is related to the verb 'adom, "to be red," and therefore probably relates to the original ruddiness of human skin. The noun connotes "man" as the creature created in God's image, the crown of all creation. In its first appearance 'adam is used for mankind, or generic man: "And God said, Let us make man in our image, after our likeness..." Gen 1:26. In Gen 2:7 the word refers to the first "man," Adam: "And the Lord God formed man of the dust of the ground, and breathed into his nostrils the breath of life; and man became a living soul."
(from Vine's Expository Dictionary of Biblical Words, Copyright ©1985, Thomas Nelson Publishers)"


Even Vine's makes a distinction between the 'aadam' of Gen.1:26 compared with the 'eth ha aadam' of later Gen.2:7. He says nothing of the eth ha aadam of Gen.1:27, though it is there also about God's 6th day creation.

Just so you'll know why I consider God's Word there making a distinction, it's because of His creation especially, and not man's theories of evolution. It also aligns with God's Plan to bring His Son through a specific lineage all the way back from the man Adam (per Luke 3) which God created with His Own Image, and not only His 'likeness' of shape or form. It is also about the Gen.2 differences with the man Adam (eth ha aadam) created specifically to till the soil.

One of the vain ideas many have gotten sucked into is the theory of evolution being applied to God's creation, treating the races of mankind as having somehow 'evolved' out of the sole man and woman Adam and Eve. If you really take time to think about that, their coming from one man and woman is actually the theory of evolution, and not God's creation. The reason is because there's no evidence, archaeological, genealogical, nor medical, that two people of one particular race produce offspring of another race. Also, per God's OT commandments to not mix to form hybrids, whether of plant seed, animals, or people (Deut.23:2), He shows that He intended His creation to remain how He created it from the start, and the Hebrew distinction in Gen.1 reveals that order.