Good Master, what must I do to inherit eternal life?

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logabe

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John's statement in 1 John 3:7 does not preclude that a man will not do righteousness because he is righteous. In asking the question, "Who is righteous?" the answer is, "the one who does righteousness." This indicates that the outcropping of being righteous is that you will do righteousness. Not that you do righteousness unto becoming righteous; but that God makes you righteous (Romans 5:19) by faith, and that the result is that you will do what is righteous.



That is because I believe that people are saved by an obedient and transformational faith. As such, those who have faith will be obedient; because they have faith.



Actually, the context of Hebrews 5:9 is referring to obedience to Melchizedec, so you have a problem. But even if it is referring to obedience to Christ, it is not outside the realm of what Hebrews 5:9 is saying, to believe that I am obedient because of faith in Jesus, and that I am not saved by that obedience but by the faith that produces the obedience.



Hebrews 4:10 tells me that we can enter into God's rest prior to physical death.



No; for there is a difference between ungodly and wicked. And if there isn't, you have a contradiction between Exodus 23:7 and Romans 4:5. So if you want to insist on the matter, would you care to explain the apparent contradiction?



The only condition is faith; and obedience arises out of a living and saving faith.



So you agree with me: faith is the only condition for being justified.



Did not Aaron the brother of Moses create a golden calf for the Israelites to worship? Yet, he is called the saint of the LORD in Psalms 106:16.



An obedient and transformational faith justifies all by its lonesome.

If someone comes to a living and saving faith, and dies two minutes later, they had no opportunity to do any good works. Do they go to heaven or hell?

I believe they would go to heaven; but your doctrine would put them in hell.



I agree that saving faith is an obedient faith. I disagree with the notion that the obedience that results out of that faith is in any way salvational.



Thank you for agreeing with me there.



Perhaps you could devote a singular post into explaining how the Bible declares this difference. I am open to learning from you; and I would like to see where this conversation leads.



So then, the order of operation is: faith --> obedience --> righteousness.



No doubt.



I will say again that we must be saved wholly by grace or not at all. The alternative is to attempt to be saved by your works to some extent.

However, grace and works are mutually exclusive when it comes to salvation:

Rom 11:5, Even so then at this present time also there is a remnant according to the election of grace.
Rom 11:6, And if by grace, then is it no more of works: otherwise grace is no more grace. But if it be of works, then is it no more grace: otherwise work is no more work.


You have it like we are climbing up a ladder and cannot reach the goal because the ladder is too short; and then an elevator lifts up the floor so that the top of the ladder reaches where you are trying to reach.

I would set it forth as a simple elevator that brings you all the way up to the place where you are trying to reach. There is no self-effort or reaching. The Lord saves you completely by His grace; and you find yourself on an elevation in righteousness that you did not have to climb anything in order to achieve.

But the natural and carnal man wants to be able to say that he did something to achieve the righteousness that God offers to you only as a free gift.



I will half agree with you there. It is indeed an obedient faith that saves us. However, the obedience that accompanies it is not salvational; and therefore I would say that it is indeed a grace alone that saves through faith alone. It is "not of works, lest any man should boast." (Ephesians 2:9).



Then I do not fully ascribe to Luther's faith only doctrine; although I do believe that we are saved through faith alone. I qualify it by saying that the only faith that saves is an obedient and transformational faith; but that it alone saves. Again, the order of operation is: faith --> salvation --> obedience --> righteousness.



Again, the generic statement in Romans 4:5 declares that to him that worketh not but believeth on him that justifieth the ungodly, his faith is counted as righteousness.

What do you think it means that God justifies the ungodly?

Is it not the case that all of us are ungodly before we come to faith in Jesus Christ?

Most assuredly, he does not leave us in the state of being ungodly.

But you seem to be advocating the concept that a person can be saved through their obedience apart from faith in Jesus Christ.

Do we not become righteous through the obedience of Him (Romans 5:19)? Through faith in His shed blood that sanctifies us (Hebrews 13:12, Hebrews 10:29)?

The things we do for God are the result of sanctification. We are made holy by Him and then we do things that are holy, stemming out of the holy character that God has created in us.
You have it backwards. What you do is determined by who you are. If one is righteous he will do righteousness. If one is unrighteous then he will do unrighteousness.

The behaviour stems from who the person is.



It only requires faith. Obedience comes as the result of having been made a new creature. You are on a "works trip". There is always going to be one more work that you have to do in order to keep saving yourself; you will never have any rest.

I rest in the finished work of the Cross and I love to minister to people. It is fun for me. I do it out of a place of rest. I have ceased from my own works, as God did from His.



I have produced it...Romans 4:5. You think that the Lord leaves a person in the state of being ungodly? We have spoken of how a man is made into a new creature in Christ. But he is saved out of a position of being ungodly.

The Lord calls those things which be not as though they were: He creates a new reality of righteousness when that reality did not exist before; because of faith in the heart of the believer.

I've got one more from that verse...if the Lord calls me righteous, that is evidence to me that I am ungodly; and this is the attitude of humility that the Lord wants of all of us.



False teachers speak this way; reversing the truth so that people will listen to them. I once told a man that he was putting the cart before the horse by putting obedience before salvation and he reversed it on me. He was a very bad false teacher. The reality is that we are saved by grace through faith; and that this is unto good works (Ephesians 2:8-10).



The Holy Spirit gave me this teaching. Obedience translates into works; that should be evident for all to see.



Consider the following:

Gal 3:10, For as many as are of the works of the law are under the curse: for it is written, Cursed is every one that continueth not in all things which are written in the book of the law to do them.

Jas 2:10, For whosoever shall keep the whole law, and yet offend in one point, he is guilty of all.

Mat 5:48, Be ye therefore perfect, even as your Father which is in heaven is perfect.


If anyone desires to mix grace and obedience as the means of salvation, the above verses apply: and you must be perfect from the beginning of your conception into eternity. Because you are trying to save yourself by works and therefore grace does not apply. You either enter in wholly by grace or you enter in wholly by works. They are mutually exclusive:

Rom 11:5, Even so then at this present time also there is a remnant according to the election of grace.
Rom 11:6, And if by grace, then is it no more of works: otherwise grace is no more grace. But if it be of works, then is it no more grace: otherwise work is no more work.




You cannot enter in by both. It is either one or the other; as the scripture directly above teaches.
 

justbyfaith

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1st Corinthians 3:15
And you are saying this, in agreement with what I posted in post #21?

I'm sorry, I need a little but more to go on.

What part of my posts are you responding to exactly?

And, if you are posting 1 Corinthians 3:15 as some kind of correction of what I posted, can you please elaborate on how you think the verse refutes what I have posted?

As I see it, there is no contradiction between what I posted and the verse reference that you posted.

So, if you want to discuss, please give me a little more to go on.

If not, then my statement concerning your referenced verse is that it does not in any way contradict what I have posted.