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"Husband of one wife"

Discussion in 'Christian Debate Forum' started by Berean, Aug 27, 2019.

  1. Giuliano

    Giuliano Well-Known Member

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    I think concubines might be acceptable in some cultures where men are more at risk of dying young than women. If a war meant many men were killed, what do the women do? Especially if they're widows? What do you do for their children? I think if a husband and wife had a really good marriage, concubines under some circumstances might be okay. Problematical to be sure, but the alternatives might be worse.

    A rabbi told me Bilhah took over rearing Joseph after Rachel died and that he also would likely have called her mother.
     
  2. FHII

    FHII Well-Known Member

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    No. They (Church remain members canin general, but not deacons and bishops) can remain single.

    1 Corinthians 7:6-9 KJV
    But I speak this by permission, and not of commandment. [7] For I would that all men were even as I myself. But every man hath his proper gift of God, one after this manner, and another after that. [8] I say therefore to the unmarried and widows, It is good for them if they abide even as I. [9] But if they cannot contain, let them marry: for it is better to marry than to burn.

    In these verses Paul is giving his own personal opinion, as he notes he is speaking by permission, and not by commandment of God. I didn't include the verse, but that portion of Paul's opinion ended in verse 10. In any sense, Paul thought that being single was good. But for bishops and deacons he recommended they be married (yes, to one wife). The reason was that they had to show they had the necessary skills to care for and run their own home (and apply it running the house of God). See verse 5 in 1 Tim 3.

    As for polygamy, I don't think he was really considering that into the equation. He gives a long list of qualifications in which a polygamist man could have regardless EXCEPT that he did mention specifically "one wife". Personally, I believe he didn't want "womanizers" in office. He wanted focused men. But... It still says one wife for a bishop and deacon. Whether that includes divorced men, I don't know...

    God didn't mind polygamy in the OT. In fact, God gave David wives (plural).

    2 Samuel 12:8 KJV
    And I gave thee thy master's house, and thy master's wives into thy bosom, and gave thee the house of Israel and of Judah; and if that had been too little, I would moreover have given unto thee such and such things.
     
    Last edited: Oct 1, 2019
  3. CharismaticLady

    CharismaticLady Well-Known Member

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    I haven't a clue what you are trying to tell me.
     
  4. CharismaticLady

    CharismaticLady Well-Known Member

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    What is a partial divorce?
     
  5. 101G

    101G Well-Known Member

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    sure, a partial divorce is the "PUTTING AWAY" without a bill of divorcement when forincation is found. a perfect example of this is in the well known story of joseph and mary, listen. Matthew 1:19 "Then Joseph her husband, being a just man, and not willing to make her a publick example, was minded to put her away privily." why put her away? because they was only espoused and had not yet consummated the marriage. this is why the Lord Jesus said what he said to the Pharisees who tried to tempt him, Matthew 19:3 "The Pharisees also came unto him, tempting him, and saying unto him, Is it lawful for a man to put away his wife for every cause?"
    Matthew 19:4 "And he answered and said unto them, Have ye not read, that he which made them at the beginning made them male and female,"
    Matthew 19:5 "And said, For this cause shall a man leave father and mother, and shall cleave to his wife: and they twain shall be one flesh?"
    Matthew 19:6 "Wherefore they are no more twain, but one flesh. What therefore God hath joined together, let not man put asunder."
    Matthew 19:7 "They say unto him, Why did Moses then command to give a writing of divorcement, and to put her away?"
    Matthew 19:8 "He saith unto them, Moses because of the hardness of your hearts suffered you to put away your wives: but from the beginning it was not so."
    Matthew 19:9 "And I say unto you, Whosoever shall put away his wife, except it be for fornication, and shall marry another, committeth adultery: and whoso marrieth her which is put away doth commit adultery."

    se, the Lord Jesus put an end to a man just "Putting away" his wife without the bill of divorcement. because she would not be fully divorce. when you consummate a marriage you need to divorce fully. if espouse only then can you put away your spouse.

    Marriage: step1. espoused. then step #2. consummated

    Divorce: step #1. Putting away, (only for forincation, espoused). step #2. Bill of Divorcement, (adultery, or other uncleaness).

    when one understand the conditions of these steps then one can clearly understand what the Lord Jesus our God is saying about marriage and divorce. thes thing applies in the OT as well as the NT.

    PICJAG.
     
  6. CharismaticLady

    CharismaticLady Well-Known Member

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    Oh, "putting away." I don't see any difference between putting away and divorce in the Law. Can you show me in the old testament?

    Thus says the Lord: “Where is the certificate of your mother’s divorce, Whom I have put away?
     
    Last edited: Oct 1, 2019
  7. 101G

    101G Well-Known Member

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    you said it, Isaiah 50:1 "Thus saith the LORD, Where is the bill of your mother's divorcement, whom I have put away? or which of my creditors is it to whom I have sold you? Behold, for your iniquities have ye sold yourselves, and for your transgressions is your mother put away."
    but again, Matthew 5:32 "But I say unto you, That whosoever shall put away his wife, saving for the cause of fornication, causeth her to commit adultery: and whosoever shall marry her that is divorced committeth adultery."

    now, the classic case, Matthew 1:19 "Then Joseph her husband, being a just man, and not willing to make her a publick example, was minded to put her away privily." he did not divorce her, because they had not sex.
    remember, espouse, put away, no bill of divorcement. consummated, Bill of divorcement, and putting away.

    now, if you want to see this in light before the LAW was given, see Genesis 21:14 with Abraham and Hagar.

    PICJAG.
     
  8. CharismaticLady

    CharismaticLady Well-Known Member

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    Did Abraham commit adultery with Hagar?
     
  9. 101G

    101G Well-Known Member

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    No.
     
  10. CharismaticLady

    CharismaticLady Well-Known Member

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    I don't agree.
     
    Pearl likes this.
  11. 101G

    101G Well-Known Member

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    on what grounds?
    PICJAG.
     
  12. A_Man

    A_Man Active Member

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    Since Paul was single, it obviously does not apply to all Christians. Men and women are allowed to be singles. Women cannot be husbands, especially since the word for husband means man. If some crazy doctor does plastic surgery on certain parts, she's still really a woman.

    I read the Old Testament word translated elders means 'bearded ones' which also sounds male.
     
  13. 101G

    101G Well-Known Member

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    the husband of one wife is just that. one wife, not two at one time, or three... if Married, only one wife AT THAT TIME, again, that's if married. Paul was a Bishop/Pastor/Elder, and he was not married, so one don't have to be married to hold the office. here in 1 Timothy 3:2, it is speaking to men who "desire" this office, not called yet by God, but "desire" to be a Bishop.
    these qualifications was directed at men who..... "desire" to hold this office, and in effect, get their lives together before holding this office. this qualification was not world wide, but directed only to men who was married, with families. as well as Deacons, for all Deacons are not married, nor have families.

    so these qualifications are not church wide coverage. nor just for "male only". nor do these qualifications exclude women, married or not.

    PICJAG
     
  14. A_Man

    A_Man Active Member

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    How can a woman be a man, much less a one-woman man?
     
  15. 101G

    101G Well-Known Member

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    did you read my post carefully?
    if not we will say it again, the qualification was directed at married men. get it?.

    if this was directed at a Married woman, the qualification would be something like this. "if a woman desire the office of Bishop, she must be the wife on one husband". understand now.

    PICJAG.
     
  16. A_Man

    A_Man Active Member

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    This is the part I was responding to
     
  17. Grailhunter

    Grailhunter Well-Known Member

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    CharismaticLady, with all due respect you are judging the OT by Christian standards. We can go into a whole list of things that you are not going to like. By your perception nearly every notable figure in the OT, Abraham, Moses, Judah, Saul, David, Solomon and many others were all adulterers before God. He told David that it was because of God that he had his wives. God made laws to regulate Polygamy, both wives and concubines. There was never a prohibition, by law, against Polygamy in the OT. To have many wives and children was seen as having the favor of God...not a sin. Polygamy is part of the Israelite religion and culture and it continued in Judaism, for several centuries after the biblical era. Christians have different morals than Jews. Modern Christians have different morals than older Christians....case in point women's rights and the slavery of human beings.
     
    Last edited: Nov 8, 2019
  18. 101G

    101G Well-Known Member

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    again, you must not read my response completly, if this was for men only, then women couldn't be "BISHOPS"/Pastors/Overseers. but the bible say other wise.

    PICJAG.
     
  19. A_Man

    A_Man Active Member

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    I was responding to the OP, but the Bible says to let the bishop be a man....

    a one woman man. Old Testament elders were 'bearded ones'.
     
  20. 101G

    101G Well-Known Member

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    sure, the bible also said there let him be the husband of ONE "WIFE". now if you want to apply this to only men, well Paul was a Bishop/pastor/elder and he was not married.
    see you your mistake?

    PICJAG.
     
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