Sorry this didn't really help. Show me something from the LXX that is corrupt.
Try the LXX itself.
What exactly is the inspired "Word" in the context of IITim.2:15. Jn.1:1, "Word was God" for example? Scriptures = inspired Word, another example as in IITim.3:16? Translations = inspired Word, another? One's K.J.V. = inspired Word? Or ? = inspired Word? One's one valid interpretation = inspired word?
Old Jack
Great question! Might be why it is written that man shall not live by bread alone but every word that proceedeth from the mouth of God.
In such, if God the Father, who is the Son of God, who only dwells in the bossom of the Father...well the you don't need me to interpret scriptures for you, you will see what I have seen an hear what I have heard...
All things are delivered unto me of my Father:
and no man knoweth the Son, but the Father;
neither knoweth any man the Father, save the Son,
and he to whomsoever the Son will reveal him.
Matt 11:27
No man hath seen God at any time;
the only begotten Son, which is in the
bosom of the Father, he hath declared him.
John 1:18
Verily, verily, I say unto you, The hour is coming,
and now is, when the dead shall hear the voice
of the Son of God: and they that hear shall live.
John 5:25
For as the Father hath life in himself; so hath he given
to the Son to have life in himself;
John 5:26
And the Father himself, which hath sent me,
hath borne witness of me. Ye have neither heard
his voice at any time, nor seen his shape.
John 5:37
Not that any man hath seen the Father,
save he which is of God, he hath seen the Father.
John 6:46