It appears that the KJV is also mistranslated. Hebrews 1:1-2
Let's see if this is true or false.
Πολυμερῶς καὶ πολυτρόπως πάλαι ὁ θεὸς λαλήσας τοῖς πατράσιν ἐν τοῖς προφήταις...
Literal Interlinear:
In many parts (portions) and in many ways, long ago, God having spoke to the fathers in the prophets...
KJV: God, who at sundry times and in divers manners spake in time past unto the fathers by the prophets...
English Standard Version Long ago,
at many times and in many ways, God spoke to our fathers by the prophets... [Note: "our fathers" should be "the fathers"]
The KJV has converted "in many parts" to "at sundry times", but the ESV has followed the KJV with "at many times". "In many parts" does not convey a very clear meaning, and "sundry times" is the 17th century equivalent of "many times". Prophecies were given in partial revelations at many times.
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ἐπ' ἐσχάτων τῶν ἡμερῶν τούτων ἐλάλησεν ἡμῖν ἐν υἱῷ ὃν ἔθηκεν κληρονόμον πάντων δι' οὗ καὶ τοὺς αἰῶνας· ἐποίησεν
Literal Interlinear: in last days these has spoken to us in[His] Son. whom He appointed heir of all things, through whom also He made the ages...
KJV: Hath in these last days spoken unto us by his Son, whom he hath appointed heir of all things, by whom also he made the worlds;
ESV: but in these last days he has spoken to us by his Son, whom he appointed the heir of all things, through whom also
he created the world. ["created the world" is incorrect]
Why did the KJV says "worlds" instead of "ages" for αἰῶνας?
Thayer's Greek Lexicon explains this:
2.
by metonymy of the container for the contained, οἱ αἰῶνες denotes the worlds, the universe, i. e. the aggregate of things contained in time (on the plural cf. Winers Grammar, 176 (166); Buttmann, 24 (21)):
Hebrews 1:2;
Hebrews 11:3; and (?)
1 Timothy 1:17; (
Revelation 15:3 WH text; cf.
Psalm 144:13 (); Tobit 13:6, 10; Sir. 36:22; Philo de plant. Noe § 12 twice;de mundo § 7; Josephus, Antiquities 1, 18, 7; Clement of Rome, 1 Cor. 61, 2 [ET]; 35, 3 [ET] (πατήρ τῶν αἰώνων); 55, 6 [ET] (Θεός τῶν αἰώνων); Apostolic Constitutions 7, 34; see Abbot in Journal Society for Biblical Literature etc. i., p. 106 n.). So αἰών in Wis. 13:9 Wis. 14:6 Wis. 18:4; the same use occurs in the Talmud, Chaldee, Syriac, Arabic; cf. Bleek, Hebraerbr. ii., 1, p. 36ff; Gesenius, Thesaurus ii., p. 1036; (cf. the use of οἱ αἰῶνες in the Fathers, equivalent to the world of mankind, e. g. Ignatius ad Eph. 19, 2 [ET]):
So, in fact, there is nothing wrong with the King James translation! But if you want to hang your hat on the YLT, no one will stop you from doing so.
