Tom,
Your claim is:
Let's check who is really right or wrong. It's an issue of biblical interpretation in context.
If you are WRONG then you are divisive. When Jesus says this is my flesh/blood and you then say it isn't....you are being divisive. One of us is right and the other is wrong.
No pointing fingers. He is flat out wrong and so are you if you don't believe what Jesus said. I believe what Jesus said.
John 6:47-58 (ESV) states:
1. Let's deal with the meaning of vv 53-54, '53 So Jesus said to them, “Truly, truly, I say to you, unless you eat the flesh of the Son of Man and drink his blood, you have no life in you. 54 Whoever feeds on my flesh and drinks my blood has eternal life, and I will raise him up on the last day'.
Here, Jesus repeats a truth he stated as the second part of v. 51, 'If anyone eats of this bread, he will live for ever'. Note the emphasis in v. 53, 'Unless you eat the flesh of the Son of Man ... you have no life in you.' Now v 54, 'Whoever feeds on my flesh ... has eternal life'.
2. What will be the result of this? 'I will raise him up on the last day' (v 54).
3. Who is the one whose flesh is eaten? He has the title of 'the Son of Man' (v. 53). Yes, he is a fleshly human being - a man - while on earth, but God has placed his seal of approval on him (Jn 6:27 ESV).
4. So the meaning is that the Son of Man is a title given to Jesus, but it does not overlook the fact that he is a flesh and blood human being. The supreme revelation of God is through Jesus, the Son of Man. Unlike any other fleshly human being, he has the amazing ability to grant one eternal life if one 'eats' of him.
5. 'Drink his/my blood' is added in vv 53 & 54. The Jews objected strongly to this statement (see v 51). Why? The
law of Moses forbade the drinking of blood (see Gen 9:2-4 ESV). So to drink the blood of the Son of Man was offensive or abominable to them.
6. John 6:54 & 6:40 have a close connection:
(1) v. 54, 'Whoever feeds on my flesh and drinks my blood has eternal life, and I will raise him up on the last day', and (2) v. 40, 'For this is the will of my Father, that everyone who looks on the Son and believes in him should have eternal life, and I will raise him up on the last day'.
The only major difference between these two verses is eating Jesus' flesh and drinking his blood vs. looking to the Son and believing in Him. We come to an obvious conclusion of interpretation: The eating the flesh and drinking the flood is a metaphorical way of referring to looking to the Son and believing in the Son. How come? The result of both activities is the same - receiving eternal life and being raised on the last day.
7. This caused the eminent church father, St. Augustine of Hippo, to state: 'Believe, and you have eaten' [
Tractate 25.12 (John 6:15-44)].
8. There are no indications in John 6:53-54 that this refers to the Lord's Supper. If we make it refer to the Eucharist, it means that one of the things necessary to receive eternal life is to participate in the Lord's Supper to eat the body and drink the blood. This would amount to works religion, which is antithetical to New Testament Christianity (Eph 2:8-9 ESV).
9. There are cannibalistic overtones if one accepts the literal body and blood instead of the metaphorical meaning that points to looking to Jesus and believing in Him to receive eternal life.
10. When John stated, 'And I will raise him up at the last day' (John 6:40, 54), it demonstrates that eating the flesh and drinking the blood literally does not confer immortality/resurrection at the last day. The Lord's Supper/Eucharist is not designed for immortality. However looking to the Son and believing in Him are for that purpose.
Like you, I also believe what Jesus said but when he spoke of eating the body and drinking the blood, it was a metaphor for looking to the Son and believing in Him to receive eternal life.
Careful exegesis of the text is needed to discern what it actually means.
Oz