Isaiah 40:13, the DSS and The Holy Spirit

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ByGraceThroughFaith

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Isaiah 40:13, the DSS and The Holy Spirit

“Who has directed the Spirit of YHWH, Or man of counsel of Him he makes Him known? With whom [did] He consult, That he causes Him to understand? And teaches Him in the path of judgment, And teaches Him knowledge? And causes Him to know the way of understanding?” (verses 13-14)

The Words “who taught Him”, is in the Masoretic Text (MT), of the Hebrew Old Testament, “יודיענו”. However, in the Dead Sea Scrolls (DSS), it reads, “יודיענה”, which is literally, “who taught Her”, as it is feminine and not masculine. The MT refers back to “יְהוָ֑ה (YHWH)”; whereas the DSS, refers to, “ר֖וּחַ (Spirit)”. The reading of the DSS does not mean that the “Spirit” is “female”, but is grammatical, for agreement with “Spirit”, and not “YHWH”, though in this case, “The Spirit of YHWH”, is One and the same Person. Even with the feminine reading, the English would read, “Him”. All of what is said in this passage, is spoken of the Holy Spirit, Who is Almighty God.

The difference between the MT and DSS is only one letter. The MT, “ו” and the DSS, “ה”. This is also the case for another very important text, on the Lord Jesus Christ in the Old Testament. In Psalm 22:16, which is on the Crucifixion of Jesus Christ, the MT reads, “כארי”, which is, “like a lion”; and the text is found in DSS Nahal Hever (5/6HevPs. 50BC-150AD), reads, “כארו”, “they pierced”. The difference is “י”, in MT, and “ו”, in the DSS. The DSS agrees with the LXX, as does the Syriac Peshitta and Latin Vulgate. Evidences that show the wilful corruption of the MT text, by opponents of Jesus The Messiah!

The difference in the readings of Isaiah 40:13-14, is of great importance, as the words in verses 13 and 14, in the DSS, refer, not to YHWH, but to “The Spirit of YHWH”, that is, “The Holy Spirit”, Who is here a distinct Person. The language is clear, “ר֖וּחַ” cannot mean something “impersonal”, as some suppose, “a thing”. The Spirit has “knowledge, and Judgement, and Understanding”, and can be “Consulted”. None of these are possible for a “thing”, that is “impersonal”.

The Masoretic text, was begun around the 6th century AD and completed in the 10th by scholars in Babylonia and Palestine. This text is supposedly based on those of the 1st century AD. The oldest source of the MT Bible is the Aleppo Codex, about 925 AD. The oldest complete source for MT is Codex Leningrad, about 1009 AD. The great Isaiah Scroll that was discovered near the Dead Sea (1QIsaa), and dates around 125 BC. This is before the Church Age, and therefore cannot be said to have been tampered by Christians.

From the evidence that we have, it is clear that the scribes of the MT, have changed the verb, in the Hebrew, from the feminine, to the masculine. The change made is very small, in the Hebrew, but what it means, is very big, for our understanding of the Person of the Holy Spirit, in the Old Testament. As this is before the Church Age, what this passage teaches in the DSS, is very important on what the Hebrew Bible says on the Holy Spirit, especially on His Person and Deity.

On the Hebrew verb, “תּכן”, which is translated, “directed”, we have the Jewish School and Family Bible, by Dr A Benisch, where it reads, “investigated”. The 12th century Jewish commentator, Ibn Ezra, uses “directed”. As does The Targum Jonathan Ben Uziel (150-250 AD), . In Proverbs 16:2, and 21:2, the verb is used metonymically, “to prove, try, examine”. Jerome in his Latin Vulgate (4th cent. AD), uses, “adiuvit”, which is “to assist, help”.

The reading of verse 13 in the Greek Old Testament, the Septuagint (LXX), which was completed about 100 BC, but has been revised/edited in the first three centuries AD, is no doubt a copyist error:

“Who has known the mind of the Lord (νοῦν κυρίου)? and who has been his counsel or, to instruct him?” (Lancelot Brenton, The Septuagint in Greek and English; Charles Thomson; Albert Pietersma and Benjamin G. Wright)

Where “Spirit” has been substituted by “mind”. There is not a single Hebrew manuscript that has this reading. The two Greek Old Testaments by Aquila a Jewish proselyte and Symmachus an Ebionite, in the 2nd century AD, both read, “πνεῦμα κυρίου, Spirit of the Lord” (Fridericus Field, Origenis Hexaplorum, Tomus II, p. 510). Like the LXX, these were made from the Hebrew manuscripts, but, unlike the LXX, they both read “Spirit”, as found in the Hebrew text they used.

The reading of the early Syriac Old Testament, known as the Peshitta, which is dated between the 1st and 3rd centuries AD, is very interesting here:

“Who has directed the Spirit of the LORD?” (G Lasma; Peshitta Syriac Old Testament)

In the translation by Pastor Glenn David Bauscher, verse 13 reads:

“Who has directed the Spirit of LORD JEHOVAH?”

Of the Syriac Peshitta, we are told;

“The Syriac translation of the Old Testament was undoubtedly made directly from the Hebrew; though at Antioch, during the third century of the present era and at later periods, it was revised so as to make it conform to the Septuagint. The history of its origin is obscure; but it was probably made in Mesopotamia during the first century” (Jewish Encyclopaedia. III, p.188)

“The earlier form [original] of the Peshitta, a daughter version of the Septuagint” (P R Ackroyd and C F Evans; The Cambridge History of the Bible, Vol. I, pp.158)

The Peshitta was made directly from the Hebrew (text as the MT), as early as the first century AD, and is supposed to have been “revised so as to make it conform to the Septuagint”. And yet it reads, “Spirit”, and the LXX has “mind”. Shows the early corruption in the LXX.

We also have the important early Version known as the Latin Vulgate, by the scholar, Jerome, in the 4th century AD.

“Quis adiuvit spiritum Domini?, Who has assisted the Spirit of the Lord?”

Jerome used the Hebrew Bible as his basis for the Old Testament, instead of the LXX. This shows that the Hebrew manuscripts at his time, 4th century A.D., had “ר֖וּחַ (Spirit)”, and not “לֵב (mind)”

Not only do we have the MT change the feminine to the masculine; we also have the LXX change “Spirit” to “mind”, a reading which is completely unknown in any Hebrew manuscript.

We have another passage in the Old Testament, where the Hebrew grammar is very clear on the Person of the Holy Spirit.

In 2 Samuel 23:2, we have a very clear reference where The Holy Spirit is called YHWH and Elohim

“The Spirit of Yahweh speaks by me; His word is on my tongue. The God of Israel has spoken; the Rock of Israel has said to me”

The Hebrew word “Spirit”, is “ר֥וּחַ”, which is feminine in gender. This does not mean that the Holy Spirit is a “female”, but, the word is grammatically in the feminine. The word “speaks”, is the Hebrew “דִּבֶּר־”, is masculine, as is “וּמִלָּת֖וֹ” (and His Word). This means that it is “ר֥וּחַ יְהוָ֖ה”, Who is the subject here, is the One Who Speaks by David. Not simply “the Spirit”, but, “the Spirit of Yahweh (ר֥וּחַ יְהוָ֖ה)”, as there is no distinction here. The words, “The God (אֱלֹהֵ֣י) of Israel has spoken; the Rock of Israel has said to me”, also refer to “ר֥וּחַ יְהוָ֖ה”. The Holy Spirit is here Yahweh and Elohim.

Here we have more solid, very clear, Biblical evidence, on the Personality and absolute Deity of God the Holy Spirit. We can also see the fact that Scripture has been tampered with by the Jews, who are against the Bible’s Teaching on the Trinity, as do others, like the Jehovah’s Witnesses.
 
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BeyondET

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Isaiah 40:13, the DSS and The Holy Spirit

“Who has directed the Spirit of YHWH, Or man of counsel of Him he makes Him known? With whom [did] He consult, That he causes Him to understand? And teaches Him in the path of judgment, And teaches Him knowledge? And causes Him to know the way of understanding?” (verses 13-14)

The Words “who taught Him”, is in the Masoretic Text (MT), of the Hebrew Old Testament, “יודיענו”. However, in the Dead Sea Scrolls (DSS), it reads, “יודיענה”, which is literally, “who taught Her”, as it is feminine and not masculine. The MT refers back to “יְהוָ֑ה (YHWH)”; whereas the DSS, refers to, “ר֖וּחַ (Spirit)”. The reading of the DSS does not mean that the “Spirit” is “female”, but is grammatical, for agreement with “Spirit”, and not “YHWH”, though in this case, “The Spirit of YHWH”, is One and the same Person. Even with the feminine reading, the English would read, “Him”. All of what is said in this passage, is spoken of the Holy Spirit, Who is Almighty God.

The difference between the MT and DSS is only one letter. The MT, “ו” and the DSS, “ה”. This is also the case for another very important text, on the Lord Jesus Christ in the Old Testament. In Psalm 22:16, which is on the Crucifixion of Jesus Christ, the MT reads, “כארי”, which is, “like a lion”; and the text is found in DSS Nahal Hever (5/6HevPs. 50BC-150AD), reads, “כארו”, “they pierced”. The difference is “י”, in MT, and “ו”, in the DSS. The DSS agrees with the LXX, as does the Syriac Peshitta and Latin Vulgate. Evidences that show the wilful corruption of the MT text, by opponents of Jesus The Messiah!

The difference in the readings of Isaiah 40:13-14, is of great importance, as the words in verses 13 and 14, in the DSS, refer, not to YHWH, but to “The Spirit of YHWH”, that is, “The Holy Spirit”, Who is here a distinct Person. The language is clear, “ר֖וּחַ” cannot mean something “impersonal”, as some suppose, “a thing”. The Spirit has “knowledge, and Judgement, and Understanding”, and can be “Consulted”. None of these are possible for a “thing”, that is “impersonal”.

The Masoretic text, was begun around the 6th century AD and completed in the 10th by scholars in Babylonia and Palestine. This text is supposedly based on those of the 1st century AD. The oldest source of the MT Bible is the Aleppo Codex, about 925 AD. The oldest complete source for MT is Codex Leningrad, about 1009 AD. The great Isaiah Scroll that was discovered near the Dead Sea (1QIsaa), and dates around 125 BC. This is before the Church Age, and therefore cannot be said to have been tampered by Christians.

From the evidence that we have, it is clear that the scribes of the MT, have changed the verb, in the Hebrew, from the feminine, to the masculine. The change made is very small, in the Hebrew, but what it means, is very big, for our understanding of the Person of the Holy Spirit, in the Old Testament. As this is before the Church Age, what this passage teaches in the DSS, is very important on what the Hebrew Bible says on the Holy Spirit, especially on His Person and Deity.

On the Hebrew verb, “תּכן”, which is translated, “directed”, we have the Jewish School and Family Bible, by Dr A Benisch, where it reads, “investigated”. The 12th century Jewish commentator, Ibn Ezra, uses “directed”. As does The Targum Jonathan Ben Uziel (150-250 AD), . In Proverbs 16:2, and 21:2, the verb is used metonymically, “to prove, try, examine”. Jerome in his Latin Vulgate (4th cent. AD), uses, “adiuvit”, which is “to assist, help”.

The reading of verse 13 in the Greek Old Testament, the Septuagint (LXX), which was completed about 100 BC, but has been revised/edited in the first three centuries AD, is no doubt a copyist error:

“Who has known the mind of the Lord (νοῦν κυρίου)? and who has been his counsel or, to instruct him?” (Lancelot Brenton, The Septuagint in Greek and English; Charles Thomson; Albert Pietersma and Benjamin G. Wright)

Where “Spirit” has been substituted by “mind”. There is not a single Hebrew manuscript that has this reading. The two Greek Old Testaments by Aquila a Jewish proselyte and Symmachus an Ebionite, in the 2nd century AD, both read, “πνεῦμα κυρίου, Spirit of the Lord” (Fridericus Field, Origenis Hexaplorum, Tomus II, p. 510). Like the LXX, these were made from the Hebrew manuscripts, but, unlike the LXX, they both read “Spirit”, as found in the Hebrew text they used.

The reading of the early Syriac Old Testament, known as the Peshitta, which is dated between the 1st and 3rd centuries AD, is very interesting here:

“Who has directed the Spirit of the LORD?” (G Lasma; Peshitta Syriac Old Testament)

In the translation by Pastor Glenn David Bauscher, verse 13 reads:

“Who has directed the Spirit of LORD JEHOVAH?”

Of the Syriac Peshitta, we are told;

“The Syriac translation of the Old Testament was undoubtedly made directly from the Hebrew; though at Antioch, during the third century of the present era and at later periods, it was revised so as to make it conform to the Septuagint. The history of its origin is obscure; but it was probably made in Mesopotamia during the first century” (Jewish Encyclopaedia. III, p.188)

“The earlier form [original] of the Peshitta, a daughter version of the Septuagint” (P R Ackroyd and C F Evans; The Cambridge History of the Bible, Vol. I, pp.158)

The Peshitta was made directly from the Hebrew (text as the MT), as early as the first century AD, and is supposed to have been “revised so as to make it conform to the Septuagint”. And yet it reads, “Spirit”, and the LXX has “mind”. Shows the early corruption in the LXX.

We also have the important early Version known as the Latin Vulgate, by the scholar, Jerome, in the 4th century AD.

“Quis adiuvit spiritum Domini?, Who has assisted the Spirit of the Lord?”

Jerome used the Hebrew Bible as his basis for the Old Testament, instead of the LXX. This shows that the Hebrew manuscripts at his time, 4th century A.D., had “ר֖וּחַ (Spirit)”, and not “לֵב (mind)”

Not only do we have the MT change the feminine to the masculine; we also have the LXX change “Spirit” to “mind”, a reading which is completely unknown in any Hebrew manuscript.

We have another passage in the Old Testament, where the Hebrew grammar is very clear on the Person of the Holy Spirit.

In 2 Samuel 23:2, we have a very clear reference where The Holy Spirit is called YHWH and Elohim

“The Spirit of Yahweh speaks by me; His word is on my tongue. The God of Israel has spoken; the Rock of Israel has said to me”

The Hebrew word “Spirit”, is “ר֥וּחַ”, which is feminine in gender. This does not mean that the Holy Spirit is a “female”, but, the word is grammatically in the feminine. The word “speaks”, is the Hebrew “דִּבֶּר־”, is masculine, as is “וּמִלָּת֖וֹ” (and His Word). This means that it is “ר֥וּחַ יְהוָ֖ה”, Who is the subject here, is the One Who Speaks by David. Not simply “the Spirit”, but, “the Spirit of Yahweh (ר֥וּחַ יְהוָ֖ה)”, as there is no distinction here. The words, “The God (אֱלֹהֵ֣י) of Israel has spoken; the Rock of Israel has said to me”, also refer to “ר֥וּחַ יְהוָ֖ה”. The Holy Spirit is here Yahweh and Elohim.

Here we have more solid, very clear, Biblical evidence, on the Personality and absolute Deity of God the Holy Spirit. We can also see the fact that Scripture has been tampered with by the Jews, who are against the Bible’s Teaching on the Trinity, as do others, like the Jehovah’s Witnesses.
James Murdock did a excellent English translation of the syriac peshitta in 1852. I enjoy this version indeed.
TRANSLATED FROM THE SYRIAC PESHITO VERSION BY JAMES MURDOCK
 
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Wrangler

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“The Spirit of YHWH”, is One and the same Person.
No. Your own analysis proves this to be untrue. YHWH is masculine not feminine. An attribute, his spirit, is not a person but is referred to using the feminine form.

Not only are they not the same person, a spirit is not a person at all but an attribute of a person, of a Being.
 

ByGraceThroughFaith

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No. Your own analysis proves this to be untrue. YHWH is masculine not feminine. An attribute, his spirit, is not a person but is referred to using the feminine form.

Not only are they not the same person, a spirit is not a person at all but an attribute of a person, of a Being.

It is obvious that your reactions are based on your personal beliefs, and not what the actual Bible passage says

In the Hebrew we have, "יְהוָ֑ה ר֖וּחַ", which is literally, "the Spirit of Yahweh", it does not say, "ר֖וּחַ", or "יְהוָ֑ה"; but "יְהוָ֑ה ר֖וּחַ". This is the subject here, and is ONE PERSON, "Who has directed the SPIRIT OF YAHWEH"?

As I have shown ther OP, the DSS which is the oldest Hebrew reading for this, it has, “יודיענה”, which is in the feminine gender, and gramatically, it refers back to “ר֖וּחַ", "Spirit", Who is here "יְהוָ֑ה ר֖וּחַ". Cleraly this is a clear Testimony to the Deity and Personality of the Holy Spirit.

This actual language from the DSS in the Hebrew text, is against what you say!
 

Wrangler

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It is obvious that your reactions are based on your personal beliefs, and not what the actual Bible passage says
Pot. Call Kettle Black. What Scripture does not say in any manner, shape or form is God is 3in1 with 3 persons making up a Godhead. This is true not matter your line of inquiry - or to what language you retreat.
 

ByGraceThroughFaith

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Pot. Call Kettle Black. What Scripture does not say in any manner, shape or form is God is 3in1 with 3 persons making up a Godhead. This is true not matter your line of inquiry - or to what language you retreat.

only because you cannot accept that FACT, that the Bible says there are THREE distinct PERSONS Who are EQUALLY YHWH!
 

Wrangler

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all dealt with here
All? I simply asked what verse says what you claim. Simple. Obviously, you cannot provide the verse because it does not exist.

As a poor substitute, you engage in artifical sythnesis; a piece of a verse out of context, here; a piece of a verse out of context, there. It is so cumbersome and unweildly, you have to refer to an entirely different website to hold your house of cards together. Any doctrine can be so 'supported.'

As @Dropship put it in another thread "Jesus went out to a mountainside to pray, and spent the night praying to God" (Luke 6:12)
So if he WAS God as some people claim, why would he pray to himself?
 
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ByGraceThroughFaith

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All? I simply asked what verse says what you claim. Simple. Obviously, you cannot provide the verse because it does not exist.

As a poor substitute, you engage in artifical sythnesis; a piece of a verse out of context, here; a piece of a verse out of context, there. It is so cumbersome and unweildly, you have to refer to an entirely different website to hold your house of cards together. Any doctrine can be so 'supported.'

As @Dropship put it in another thread "Jesus went out to a mountainside to pray, and spent the night praying to God" (Luke 6:12)
So if he WAS God as some people claim, why would he pray to himself?

the Bible says "to prove all things" - 1 Thessalonians 5:21, I have provided very detailed studies on the Trinity, which is for anyone to refute, if they believe that they are wrong. I have used the Holy Bible as my Authority, and not any man-made, fallible, errant book!

Now it is up to you to prove what I have written to be not what the Bible says
 

Dropship

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When I lived in Leicester 20 years ago, there was a young street preacher who drew pretty good crowds because he seemed sensible.
Then I moved to Plymouth and lost touch with him, but a couple of years ago I decided to google him and saw on the net that he'd become a middleaged Baptist minister at a local Leicester church and was surprised and disappointed to see he'd become one of the "Jesus was God" brigade because as he told me "you have to think context, context, context"
I begged to differ but he'd made up his mind.
I've got a theory that people who study the bible too much are overdoing it and begin to imagine they can see things in the text that the rest of us can't see..:)
 

L.A.M.B.

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Its simple, we know nothing.
Even if you read and or study til your eyes dim, IF you are doing so w / o the Holy Ghost revealing as he leads you through the word, then it is of your own that you do it.

We may think " O I SEE" but its not that simple. Evey word was written by holy men under the inspiration of the Holy Ghost. If you dont believe this then youre wasting your time reading & studying.

There are parts of God he doesnt reveal to us until the time is full. There are parts of the word that are mysteries by his design.

I dont know how our emotional thinking will be when we get to eternity but I'm guessing after all , we will know nothing.
It may be that God is of no gender. The angels may be made of male & female. We may only see O.N.E.
I'm doubting this though for John saw the Son of God seperately from him that sat on the throne, and Jesus throne is at the right hand of the Father. The Spirit, I believe has no form for he came to the disciples as a mighty rushing wind with cloven tongues that sat above each's head before filling them.

So supposition is of zero value and arguing is a waste of time & energy !
 

ByGraceThroughFaith

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When I lived in Leicester 20 years ago, there was a young street preacher who drew pretty good crowds because he seemed sensible.
Then I moved to Plymouth and lost touch with him, but a couple of years ago I decided to google him and saw on the net that he'd become a middleaged Baptist minister at a local Leicester church and was surprised and disappointed to see he'd become one of the "Jesus was God" brigade because as he told me "you have to think context, context, context"
I begged to differ but he'd made up his mind.
I've got a theory that people who study the bible too much are overdoing it and begin to imagine they can see things in the text that the rest of us can't see..:)

if Jesus Christ is not Almighty God, YHWH, then the Holy Bible is a FALSE witness!
 
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ByGraceThroughFaith

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Its simple, we know nothing.
Even if you read and or study til your eyes dim, IF you are doing so w / o the Holy Ghost revealing as he leads you through the word, then it is of your own that you do it.

We may think " O I SEE" but its not that simple. Evey word was written by holy men under the inspiration of the Holy Ghost. If you dont believe this then youre wasting your time reading & studying.

There are parts of God he doesnt reveal to us until the time is full. There are parts of the word that are mysteries by his design.

I dont know how our emotional thinking will be when we get to eternity but I'm guessing after all , we will know nothing.
It may be that God is of no gender. The angels may be made of male & female. We may only see O.N.E.
I'm doubting this though for John saw the Son of God seperately from him that sat on the throne, and Jesus throne is at the right hand of the Father. The Spirit, I believe has no form for he came to the disciples as a mighty rushing wind with cloven tongues that sat above each's head before filling them.

So supposition is of zero value and arguing is a waste of time & energy !

The Throne of God the Father, is the SAME Throne of God the Son, Who are absolutely COEQUAL in the Eternal Godhead

In Revelation chapter 22, verse 1, we read: “And he showed me a river of water of life, bright as crystal, proceeding out of the throne of God and of the Lamb”. The Greek here is very important, “του θρονου του θεου και του αρνιου”, where “του θρονου” (the throne), is in the singular number. God and the Lamb, as “distinct” Persons, are united in Their Rule. This absolute unity, can also be seen in chapter 11:15, “And the seventh angel sounded; and there were great voices in heaven, saying, The kingdoms of this world are become the kingdoms of our Lord, and of His Christ; and He shall Reign for ever and ever”. Note the end, “He shall Reign”, which in the Greek is, “βασιλευσει”, which is in the singular number. It can refer to “His Christ”, or, to “our Lord and of His Christ”, the latter no doubt being the correct meaning, as seen from the main passage from chapter 5, and 22. Let no one suppose that there is some “subordination” with Jesus Christ to the Father, post-Incarnation, as this is proven as completely wrong from these passages in Revelation.
 

Wrangler

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if Jesus Christ is not Almighty God, YHWH, then the Holy Bible is a FALSE witness!

Agreed! The Holy Bible testifies Jesus is NOT God. It only says God the Father - in every Epistle, over and over again. For us, there is one God, the Father. Jesus says the Father is his God, the only true God.

In addition, the Holy Bible repeatedly tells us Jesus was a man and like all men died, proving he is NOT God. Powerful testimony, indeed.
 

Dropship

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if Jesus Christ is not Almighty God, YHWH, then the Holy Bible is a FALSE witness!

"A certain ruler asked him, “Good teacher, what must I do to inherit eternal life?”
“Why do you call me good?” Jesus answered, “No one is good except God alone" (Luke 18:19)

 

ByGraceThroughFaith

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Agreed! The Holy Bible testifies Jesus is NOT God. It only says God the Father - in every Epistle, over and over again. For us, there is one God, the Father. Jesus says the Father is his God, the only true God.

In addition, the Holy Bible repeatedly tells us Jesus was a man and like all men died, proving he is NOT God. Powerful testimony, indeed.

you crossed out my NOT, so you have PERVERTED what I have written, this is WRONG!!!

typical by those who hate the Truth of the Bible!
 
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Wrangler

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you crossed out my NOT, so you have PERVERTED what I have written, this is WRONG!!!

typical by those who hate the Truth of the Bible!
Your "not" was twisted and wrong as I demonstrated by various direct and explicit Scripture verses. Which of these statements are true?
A. Jesus died.
B. Jesus did not die.

The 'not' is not right, then or now.
 

L.A.M.B.

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if Jesus Christ is not Almighty God, YHWH, then the Holy Bible is a FALSE witness!




If anyone has an ounce of belief in the word then they should KNOW that Jesus is God.

If ppl deny this, they will be denied by the Christ b4 the Father. Furthermore I do not believe they have salvation. Jesus plainly said I and the Father are one.

Its time to not dilly dally around so as not to offend so called followers.IF ANY DO NOT RECOGINIZE JESUS CHRIST AS GOD, THEY ARE NONE OF HIS. THEY CANNOT BELIEVE IN THE FATHER NOR THE SPIRIT EXCEPT BY LIP- SERVICE. They have been deceived and love the blindness they have for Jesus told the Pharisees that to search the scripture for he was in them, as God b4 the foundations of the world !!!!!!!!!!