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Featured Jesus is God in the Flesh!!

Discussion in 'Christian Theology Forum' started by GISMYS_7, Oct 26, 2019.

  1. justbyfaith

    justbyfaith Well-Known Member

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    Didn't Matthew take Hosea 11:1 out of context in Matthew 2:15 when he referred to the son as Jesus in Matthew when the son referred to in Hosea was Israel?

    In NT theology, Jesus is indeed the Son of God; and Matthew was right to take it out of its immediate context and did so under inspiration of the Holy Spirit.

    More important than immediate context, is topical context (1 Corinthians 2:13 (kjv)).

    In 2 Corinthians 9:6, the immediate context is referring to financial sowing and reaping; but if you utilize the hermeneutical mandate of 1 Corinthians 2:13 and compare 2 Corinthians 9:6 to Luke 8:11, you will come up with a wonderful doctrine in application. You can also throw Ecclesiastes 11:6 into it and it is even better.

    Don't get me wrong: immediate context is very important for the most part: it is just not essential to our understanding; as can be seen clearly in the case of Matthew 2:15 as it is quoted from Hosea 11:1.

    We ought to take our personal reading seriously so that we can understand what the scripture is saying in its immediate context as we read through books of the Bible rather than playing Bible roullette in our Bible study time.

    Then, when people apply verses in relation to their topical context (coming from other portions of the Bible) we can discern whether the understanding is accurate or inaccurate; because we have done our reading and know what the Bible is teaching in its immediate context.

    Nevertheless, in some cases, it is clear that verses can stand on their own as bastions of spiritual truth and can be understood outside of their immediate context (as was the case with Matthew's quotation of Hosea 11:1).
     
  2. justbyfaith

    justbyfaith Well-Known Member

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    And that, sir, is an accusation that is unfounded upon any evidence.
     
  3. BARNEY BRIGHT

    BARNEY BRIGHT Well-Known Member

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    Some scholars accuse Matthew of taking Hosea’s words out of context, forcing them to predict an event that was future to the prophet, when Hosea himself was looking back to the exodus long before his time. What such critics do not see is the deeper matrix that links God’s protection of Israel, his adoptive son, at the exodus to his preservation of Jesus, the Father’s unique Son. Matthew’s point is that Jesus fulfills Israel’s early history because he is the true Israel, delivered from death as an infant, brought out of Egypt, and tested in the wilderness (and successfully passing the test that Israel had failed). By affirming that Hosea’s words are “fulfilled” in the young Jesus’ return from Egypt with his parents, Matthew does not claim that Hosea’s words fit Jesus instead of Israel, but rather that they fit Jesus because he himself is Israel’s fulfillment.
     
  4. justbyfaith

    justbyfaith Well-Known Member

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    I'm sorry I don't see that.

    Jesus is not Israel, no matter how you slice the cheese.
     
  5. farouk

    farouk Well-Known Member

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  6. justbyfaith

    justbyfaith Well-Known Member

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  7. 101G

    101G Well-Known Member

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    Addressing the OP only.
    We agree that JESUS is God in the flesh. but can one explain that statement correctly? example, if Jesus is God in Flesh, (which he is), one need to explain Phil 2:7. for if God was Christ in the flesh, and he was G2758 κενόω kenoo (ke-no-ō'), question, "who was running the universe, meaning upholding all things?". and if one say only the "son" was Christ, then you have a problem. for the bible said "God", whom many say is 3-in-one, (including the son), so if true then the Phil 2:7 block you. now if one say only the "son" was in Christ as a separate person, then you're saying that a piece of God, (1/3) is in Christ. well, God is not divided, nor a half of himself. and second, if a 1/3 was in Christ and one use the term Jesus is God, then God is one Person, THE "SON", in the flesh, now one have God in flesh. but many still say that the FATHER is God, (who is Spirit), either the FATHER, and the SON are the same person, or else one have two Gods. for if one have God who is Spirit, and a Seperate "person" in flesh who is God, then one again have two Gods.

    and for the oneness BELIEVERS, if the one God is Christ in flesh, then they will have to explain Phil 2:7 being G2758 κενόω kenoo (ke-no-ō').

    now, something to think about. the spirit, that was in the body that is called christ, which is with the soul, MAKING ONE PERSON, and notice the small case "s" in spirit, if this is the son a seperate person and is G2758 κενόω kenoo (ke-no-ō'), then the question, "how can the Son which have the same NATURE, be G2758 κενόω kenoo (ke-no-ō') and the Father is not, and yet both suppose to have the SAME NATURE AND EQUAL. ...... well?

    PICJAG.
     
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