Let the Apostle Paul Explain His Own Word 'arsenokoites'

[Arthur81]

Scholars pretty much agree that since arsenokoites was first seen in Paul's writings, that he coined the word. It is a compound word, and usually an etymology is seen as the history of a word, not its meaning. But, when you are dealing with the one who coined it, things are different:

"RULE:—The meaning of a rare word, not decided by usage, should be sought first in the etymology, then in early versions, and lastly in kindred tongues" page 123

https://icotb.org/resources/PrinciplesofInterpretation.pdf

Paul combined two words, arsen for "male" and koites meaning "a couch". The logical place to figure out what Paul meant by joining the basic meanings of those two words, is to see how Paul uses koites 3 times as follow:

"Marriage is honourable in all, and the bed undefiled: but whoremongers and adulterers God will judge." (Heb 13:4 KJV) Here the honorable meaning the "marriage bed".
"And not only this; but when Rebecca also had conceived by one, even by our father Isaac;" (Rom 9:10 KJV) Here a moral use of sex, for conception.

"Let us walk honestly, as in the day; not in rioting and drunkenness, not in chambering and wantonness, not in strife and envying." (Rom 13:13 KJV)

*Here we have koites used in a sinful manner, sandwiched between "drunkeness" and "wantonness". Chambering is as it sounds, sinful, promiscuous sexual activity of M-F, and the context shows how it is viewed.

We can see what Paul means with koites in a sinful M-F context. So, when he puts "male" in front of the word, it is apparently M-M promiscuous sexual activity connected with drunkenness and wantonness. Pretty vivid word picture there.

In spite of what many seem to think, in the last 100 years, there is no logical word associations in 1 Cor. 6:9 by which to add further definition of meaning to Paul's usage. But Paul uses the word once more, in 1 Tim. 1:9-10 and there he does give a structure of the sins, categories so to speak. They are as follows:

A. the lawless and disobedient, for the ungodly and for sinners, for unholy and profane
B. for murderers of fathers and murderers of mothers, for manslayers
C. whoremongers, arsenokoites, for menstealers,
D. for liars, for perjured persons

Here we see arsenokoites used in a context of extreme fornication, maybe rape; but surely violence as "menstealers" shows.

I will stay with the rational examination of Paul's usage of the word(s) which basically agrees with the understandings from the Tynedale up through the Bishops, KJV, RV, YLT and ASV:

As I read Paul, he means by the word a very promiscuous, violent, sexual predator type person. In other words, a "sodomite" as the 1828 Webster's defines it:

"ABU'SER, n. s as z. One who abuses, in speech or behavior; one that deceives; a ravisher; a sodomite. 1 Cor 6."

Here I disagree with the NRSVue foot notes: "Meaning of GK uncertain". It only became "uncertain" once the 1946 RSV jammed two words together in 1 Cor. 6:9 and translated it as "homosexuals". Prior to that time, it seemed pretty clear, the meaning of Paul.

 

[Ronald Nolette]

Scholars pretty much agree that since arsenokoites was first seen in Paul's writings, that he coined the word. It is a compound word, and usually an etymology is seen as the history of a word, not its meaning. But, when you are dealing with the one who coined it, things are different:

"RULE:—The meaning of a rare word, not decided by usage, should be sought first in the etymology, then in early versions, and lastly in kindred tongues" page 123

https://icotb.org/resources/PrinciplesofInterpretation.pdf

Paul combined two words, arsen for "male" and koites meaning "a couch". The logical place to figure out what Paul meant by joining the basic meanings of those two words, is to see how Paul uses koites 3 times as follow:

"Marriage is honourable in all, and the bed undefiled: but whoremongers and adulterers God will judge." (Heb 13:4 KJV) Here the honorable meaning the "marriage bed".
"And not only this; but when Rebecca also had conceived by one, even by our father Isaac;" (Rom 9:10 KJV) Here a moral use of sex, for conception.

"Let us walk honestly, as in the day; not in rioting and drunkenness, not in chambering and wantonness, not in strife and envying." (Rom 13:13 KJV)

*Here we have koites used in a sinful manner, sandwiched between "drunkeness" and "wantonness". Chambering is as it sounds, sinful, promiscuous sexual activity of M-F, and the context shows how it is viewed.

We can see what Paul means with koites in a sinful M-F context. So, when he puts "male" in front of the word, it is apparently M-M promiscuous sexual activity connected with drunkenness and wantonness. Pretty vivid word picture there.

In spite of what many seem to think, in the last 100 years, there is no logical word associations in 1 Cor. 6:9 by which to add further definition of meaning to Paul's usage. But Paul uses the word once more, in 1 Tim. 1:9-10 and there he does give a structure of the sins, categories so to speak. They are as follows:

A. the lawless and disobedient, for the ungodly and for sinners, for unholy and profane
B. for murderers of fathers and murderers of mothers, for manslayers
C. whoremongers, arsenokoites, for menstealers,
D. for liars, for perjured persons

Here we see arsenokoites used in a context of extreme fornication, maybe rape; but surely violence as "menstealers" shows.

I will stay with the rational examination of Paul's usage of the word(s) which basically agrees with the understandings from the Tynedale up through the Bishops, KJV, RV, YLT and ASV:

As I read Paul, he means by the word a very promiscuous, violent, sexual predator type person. In other words, a "sodomite" as the 1828 Webster's defines it:

"ABU'SER, n. s as z. One who abuses, in speech or behavior; one that deceives; a ravisher; a sodomite. 1 Cor 6."

Here I disagree with the NRSVue foot notes: "Meaning of GK uncertain". It only became "uncertain" once the 1946 RSV jammed two words together in 1 Cor. 6:9 and translated it as "homosexuals". Prior to that time, it seemed pretty clear, the meaning of Paul.

also remember the second part of this compound word "koites" translated through the centuries to English is coitus!

 

[Arthur81]

also remember the second part of this compound word "koites" translated through the centuries to English is coitus!

Ronald, I 'was' in agreement with you on the relation of 'koites' to 'coitus'. Yet this morning I got curious and looked at the etymology of our word "coitus" and I found no reference indicating that it goes back to 'koites'. I suppose it is because in the Greek 'koites' basic meaning is a bed, not intercourse. So, it seems, we both may be wrong on that -

coitus (n.)
"copulation, sexual intercourse," 1848, scientific use of Latin coitus "a meeting together; sexual union," past participle of coire "to come together, meet," from assimilated form of com "together" (see co-) + ire (past participle itus) "to come, to go," (from PIE root *ei- "to go").

In Middle English nativized as coite (early 15c.). Coitus was used in English in general senses of "meeting, uniting," and also in reference to magnetic force, planetary conjunction, etc., before the sexual sense came to predominate.

Coitus interruptus, "sexual intercourse in which the penis is voluntarily withdrawn from the vagina before ejaculation, for the purpose of avoiding conception," is from 1886 (from 1885 in German publications). Coitus reservatus in reference to prolonged copulation by deliberate control is from 1890 in English (1880 in German). coitus | Search Online Etymology Dictionary

Do you have a reference that puts the Greek 'koites' into the etymology?

 

[Ronald Nolette]

Ronald, I 'was' in agreement with you on the relation of 'koites' to 'coitus'. Yet this morning I got curious and looked at the etymology of our word "coitus" and I found no reference indicating that it goes back to 'koites'. I suppose it is because in the Greek 'koites' basic meaning is a bed, not intercourse. So, it seems, we both may be wrong on that -

coitus (n.)
"copulation, sexual intercourse," 1848, scientific use of Latin coitus "a meeting together; sexual union," past participle of coire "to come together, meet," from assimilated form of com "together" (see co-) + ire (past participle itus) "to come, to go," (from PIE root *ei- "to go").

In Middle English nativized as coite (early 15c.). Coitus was used in English in general senses of "meeting, uniting," and also in reference to magnetic force, planetary conjunction, etc., before the sexual sense came to predominate.

Coitus interruptus, "sexual intercourse in which the penis is voluntarily withdrawn from the vagina before ejaculation, for the purpose of avoiding conception," is from 1886 (from 1885 in German publications). Coitus reservatus in reference to prolonged copulation by deliberate control is from 1890 in English (1880 in German). coitus | Search Online Etymology Dictionary

Do you have a reference that puts the Greek 'koites' into the etymology?

You have your answer in your answer. Coitus is latin and comes from the greek Koites. Where it made the jump- I can't tell. but as Koites had a secondary meaning of sexual activitry- it is there. If I find the etymology, I will cite it for you.

 

[Lambano]

Scholars pretty much agree that since arsenokoites was first seen in Paul's writings, that he coined the word. It is a compound word, and usually an etymology is seen as the history of a word, not its meaning. But, when you are dealing with the one who coined it, things are different:

"RULE:—The meaning of a rare word, not decided by usage, should be sought first in the etymology, then in early versions, and lastly in kindred tongues" page 123

As was noted by Richard Hays in Echoes of Scripture in the Letters of Paul, Paul often uses the literary technique of "echo" to point to sections of scripture he has in mind. In this particular case, there is a strong echo pointing to the LXX version of Leviticus 20:13:

κοιμηθῇ μετὰ ἄρσενος κοίτην γυναικός
koimethe meta arsenos koiten gynaikos
sleeps with a man as in bed with a woman.

Paul's echoing of the language of one of the "clobber verses" points to his definition of arsenoskoites as those engaging in male-male intercourse as traditionally prohibited by Torah. We'll leave open for now the question of hand jobs and blow jobs.

Anyway, looking for echoes and allusions in scripture is another tool for translating neologisms such as arsenoskoites.

 

[GracePeace]

Scholars pretty much agree that since arsenokoites was first seen in Paul's writings, that he coined the word. It is a compound word, and usually an etymology is seen as the history of a word, not its meaning. But, when you are dealing with the one who coined it, things are different:

"RULE:—The meaning of a rare word, not decided by usage, should be sought first in the etymology, then in early versions, and lastly in kindred tongues" page 123

https://icotb.org/resources/PrinciplesofInterpretation.pdf

Paul combined two words, arsen for "male" and koites meaning "a couch". The logical place to figure out what Paul meant by joining the basic meanings of those two words, is to see how Paul uses koites 3 times as follow:

"Marriage is honourable in all, and the bed undefiled: but whoremongers and adulterers God will judge." (Heb 13:4 KJV) Here the honorable meaning the "marriage bed".
"And not only this; but when Rebecca also had conceived by one, even by our father Isaac;" (Rom 9:10 KJV) Here a moral use of sex, for conception.

"Let us walk honestly, as in the day; not in rioting and drunkenness, not in chambering and wantonness, not in strife and envying." (Rom 13:13 KJV)

*Here we have koites used in a sinful manner, sandwiched between "drunkeness" and "wantonness". Chambering is as it sounds, sinful, promiscuous sexual activity of M-F, and the context shows how it is viewed.

We can see what Paul means with koites in a sinful M-F context. So, when he puts "male" in front of the word, it is apparently M-M promiscuous sexual activity connected with drunkenness and wantonness. Pretty vivid word picture there.

In spite of what many seem to think, in the last 100 years, there is no logical word associations in 1 Cor. 6:9 by which to add further definition of meaning to Paul's usage. But Paul uses the word once more, in 1 Tim. 1:9-10 and there he does give a structure of the sins, categories so to speak. They are as follows:

A. the lawless and disobedient, for the ungodly and for sinners, for unholy and profane
B. for murderers of fathers and murderers of mothers, for manslayers
C. whoremongers, arsenokoites, for menstealers,
D. for liars, for perjured persons

Here we see arsenokoites used in a context of extreme fornication, maybe rape; but surely violence as "menstealers" shows.

I will stay with the rational examination of Paul's usage of the word(s) which basically agrees with the understandings from the Tynedale up through the Bishops, KJV, RV, YLT and ASV:

As I read Paul, he means by the word a very promiscuous, violent, sexual predator type person. In other words, a "sodomite" as the 1828 Webster's defines it:

"ABU'SER, n. s as z. One who abuses, in speech or behavior; one that deceives; a ravisher; a sodomite. 1 Cor 6."

Here I disagree with the NRSVue foot notes: "Meaning of GK uncertain". It only became "uncertain" once the 1946 RSV jammed two words together in 1 Cor. 6:9 and translated it as "homosexuals". Prior to that time, it seemed pretty clear, the meaning of Paul.

When Paul says the Law was made for the lawless and disobedient, for ungodly and sinners, etc, and then mentions "arsenokoites", we should look at what the Law says, and when we do that, we see that it condemns men laying with men, and, since the Law gives no context justifying men sleeping with men, but condemns the act, so that all contexts in which the act is committed are condemned, there is no uncertainty about the matter.

It's not "difficult" to understand, unless you are, instead of being transformed by the renewing of your mind, being conformed to this world which celebrates abominations.

Marriage, as Christ defines it, citing Genesis 1-3, is a man and a woman, so there is no "marriage bed" that is "undefiled" that would include two men.

God also COMMANDS humans "be fruitful and multiply", so that all homosexual configurations are rebellion against that COMMAND, which has never been rescinded, as well.

 

[GracePeace]

We'll leave open the question of hand jobs and blow jobs.

Men engaging in sexual relationships with men is condemned when, in Romans 1, Paul gets at the root of the matter : to be inflamed with these unnatural desires is caused by idolatry, for which reason God gave them up to dishonorable passions (they dishonor God, so God pays them in kind by giving them dishonorable desires).