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No finger pointing = did not get any sleep last night
Nevertheless John 12:48 argues against your OP as does John 1:1 and the scriptures in my initial post to you.
John 12:48
My
μου (mou)
Personal / Possessive Pronoun - Genitive 1st Person Singular
Strong's Greek 1473: I, the first-person pronoun. A primary pronoun of the first person I.
words:
ῥήματά (rhēmata)
Noun - Accusative Neuter Plural
Strong's Greek 4487: From rheo; an utterance, ; by implication, a matter or topic; with a negative naught whatever.
The
ὁ (ho)
Article - Nominative Masculine Singular
Strong's Greek 3588: The, the definite article. Including the feminine he, and the neuter to in all their inflections; the definite article; the.
word
λόγος (logos)
Noun - Nominative Masculine Singular
Strong's Greek 3056: From lego; something said; by implication, a topic, also reasoning or motive; by extension, a computation; specially, the Divine Expression.
that
ὃν (hon)
Personal / Relative Pronoun - Accusative Masculine Singular
Strong's Greek 3739: Who, which, what, that.
I have spoken
ἐλάλησα (elalēsa)
Verb - Aorist Indicative Active - 1st Person Singular
Strong's Greek 2980: A prolonged form of an otherwise obsolete verb; to talk, i.e. Utter words.
will judge
κρινεῖ (krinei)
Verb - Future Indicative Active - 3rd Person Singular
Strong's Greek 2919: Properly, to distinguish, i.e. Decide; by implication, to try, condemn, punish.
The reading which I posted in the OP is really not any different than most semi-literal translations except that my reading highlights the issues I brought up, 1), that if we are going to capitalize the emphatic "ho Logos" in John 1:1 then we should also do so anywhere else in at least the same Gospel account where it has a clear impact on doctrine, and John 12:48 is surely one of those places. And 2), the fact that the word ekeinos in that passage, (referring back to "ho Logos"), literally means "that one" or "that thing". The semi-literal word for word translations generally read ekeinos as "the same" which is also found in the lexical definitions for ekeinos. My rendering therefore does not mean anything different than translations such as the KJV or the ASV, it's just that my reading is more emphatic so as to wake people up to what the text is actually saying and teaching.
John 12:48 KJV
48 He that rejecteth me, and receiveth not my words, hath one that judgeth him: the word that I have spoken, the same shall judge him in the last day.
John 12:48 ASV
48 He that rejecteth me, and receiveth not my sayings, hath one that judgeth him: the word that I spake, the same shall judge him in the last day.
But what if these texts capitalized the Logos and ekeinos, (the same), which refers back to the Logos in theses texts in order to be consistent with John 1:1?
John 12:48 KJV(+)
48 He that rejecteth me, and receiveth not my words, hath one that judgeth him: the Word that I have spoken, the Same shall judge him in the last day.
John 12:48 ASV(+)
48 He that rejecteth me, and receiveth not my sayings, hath one that judgeth him: the Word that I spake, the Same shall judge him in the last day.
This is no different than what is in the OP and within its context it refutes the core premise of your doctrine.



