The Bible is against sin and sinning from cover to cover! God hates sin! Jesus died because of our sins! God provides the believer with regeneration, conversion, the New-Birth and sanctification. God promises us that He can keep us from falling, that when temptation comes, He will provide a way of escape. Yet, those that do not believe God spend most of their time creating a "theology" that fights more "for" sin than it fights against it!
First, it goes against the style of John in this Epistle. John is black and white, either/or. You are either in the light or in darkness (1:5-7). We have come to know Him,
"if we keep His commandments"; and the one who does not,
"keep His commandments is a liar." (2:3-4).
he who loves his brother abides in the light and there is no cause for stumbling..; but the one who hates his brother is in the darkness... (2:10-11). John is either/or.
Chapter 3:4
John gives a series of contrasts, either/or.
"Whosoever committeth [present tense] sin transgresseth the law. For sin is the transgression of the law."
The contrast:
"And ye know that he was manifested to take away our sins; and in him is no sin." (v.5).
Whether you "practice" sin, or as it really means... present tense commit sin, it is a transgression of the law. This is contrasted with Jesus, who has
no sin "in" Him, and was "
manifested to take away our sins."
Based upon this, verse 6 says: "Whosoever abideth in him sinneth not."
Whosoever abides in Jesus does not [present tense] sin.
The contrast:
"Whosoever [present tense] sins has not seen Him, nor knows Him." Practice or not, John plainly says that the one who "present tense'" sins, does not know Jesus.
3:7...
"Little children, let no man deceive you: he that doeth [present tense] righteousness is righteous, even as he (He, Jesus) is righteous."
So, is our present tense righteous only a
part-time "righteousness? It is compared to and said to be exactly the same as the righteousness of Christ.
Was Jesus only "practicing" righteousness in a way as to not "continue to live in sin" the way an unsaved person can"? Like David in his adultery and murder?
The contrast:
Verse 8
"He that [present tense]
sin(s)
is of the devil..." So is John saying that if we "practice" sinning less than we "practice" righteousness, we are not of the devil? Of course not! John says that our righteousness is the same as the righteousness of Christ! Not part-time! This is just another either/or contrast by John.
Verse 8,
"For this purpose the Son of God was manifested, that he might destroy the works of the devil." Jesus just told us what the "works of the devil" are! It is [present tense] sinning! Does Jesus fail in this clearly stated "purpose"? Where does this passage even imply that "destruction" of sin is merely a diversion to sinning "less" and doing righteousness "sometimes," perhaps more than when you were not saved?
Verse 9
Somehow, after John hammers home the stark contrasts of sin and righteousness, being either of Christ or the devil, there are "translators" who somehow arrive that John was "iffy" about these contrasts! That it is now "magically' speaking about a mere "
makes a practice of sinning," as a general life direction. What a leap in logic, and a clear defiance of everything else John has said in context! Somehow, an inconvenient verse is presented in a way that allows people to sin like the devil, and be righteous like Jesus is, all at the same time!
Appealing to a murderer and rapist in connection of what John writes to justify sin and sinning is clearly not exegesis, or even sound theology.