Sin, Transgression, Iniquity. All the same?

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Episkopos

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i'm passing curious how this is even accomplished, where your posts are getting inserted into the previous quote?


I'm still getting used to the system here. Very different from other sites. I deleted the post as it was only GG's comments...I had pushed reply...and then tried something else...
 

bbyrd009

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I'm still getting used to the system here. Very different from other sites. I deleted the post as it was only GG's comments...I had pushed reply...and then tried something else...
ah, you're reply was in there, at the bottom. If you outline how you are replying it would prolly become clear; near as i can guess you are hitting reply and then moving the cursor to behind the /QUOTE before you start typing, maybe?
 

Episkopos

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ah, you're reply was in there, at the bottom. If you outline how you are replying it would prolly become clear; near as i can guess you are hitting reply and then moving the cursor to behind the /QUOTE before you start typing, maybe?


I'm doing a lot of things! ;) But I'm getting the hang of it.
 
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quietthinker

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You're right in that it's all sin,,,but there are differences.
It could help us to know what the differences are.

But are you saying that I'M attempting to change God's law??
HOW is His law being changed in any way by defining the sin?
What I'm saying GG is that God's law has always been around, even before Sinai. Sin is insult to God's character. Adam and Eve insulted God by disbelieving him and running with the serpent's smooth words. It is still done today.

Look at the Commandments and then look at what is practised in the churches and peoples lives. You will soon see that men prefer their modification of God's laws in preference to the straight testimony.
 

1stCenturyLady

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All the same GG.

That sounds like the nondiscernment phrase "sin is sin." The same people say "all sin is willful."

But those are both wrong. There are sins unto death, and sins NOT unto death. Do you know the difference? Sins unto death are willful sins/lawlessness. Sins not unto death are unintentional, unknown trespasses unwittingly committed.

The sins referred to in 1 John 3 are willful sins - sins unto death. The clue to the distinction is verse 4 - lawlessness.

1 John 1:7 talks of the cleansing of sin while walking in the Spirit. Those are trespasses, and as long as you forgive others their trespasses against you, those you commit are automatically cleansed, which leaves you constantly in a state of "sinlessness" even though you committed an unknown trespass. 1 John 2:1 has Jesus as an advocate with the Father over these sins He is constantly cleansing. This verse is NOT about willful sins unto death. The clue to this distinction is the lack of repentance required.
 

djstav

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It had to be WWJD.
Why?
Because Jesus did not encounter each and every act of a moral essence that He could have commented upon. For instance, the N.T. does not speak about abortion but it does speak about murder. It does not speak about drugs, but it does say not to get drunk on anything.

So if something comes up that is not specifically written about, we'd have to ask:
WWJD.
What Would Jesus Do?
Why would you have to do anything if Jesus did it all for you?