So Joseph married Mary but didn’t have sex?

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David in NJ

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Behold the virgin be with child.....That was talking about Isaiah wife and virgin could mean a woman that had not had a child. The words conceived, pregnant, and begotten and son have meanings. And to be the Son of Yahweh He had to be begotten of Yahweh.
The angel answered and said to her, “The Holy Spirit will come upon you, and the power of the Most High will overshadow you; and for that reason the holy Child shall be called the Son of God. Luke 1:35
Still most every reference points to sex.
The HOLY SPIRIT Confirms for us that Isaiah 7:14 is Prophecy of Immanuel/JESUS/GOD with us

Indeed a child was born back then to Isaiah = Do not confuse past history with the 1st Advent of MESSIAH - as many do!

Are you a jw?

Also the HOLY SPIRIT is SPIRIT = No doinker hanging around for the waterslide!
 

Grailhunter

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The HOLY SPIRIT Confirms for us that Isaiah 7:14 is Prophecy of Immanuel/JESUS/GOD with us

Indeed a child was born back then to Isaiah = Do not confuse past history with the 1st Advent of MESSIAH - as many do!

Are you a jw?

No I am not Jehovah's Witness. LOL Are you atheist? Can you read?
Isaiah 7:14 is plucked out of a long storyline about testing the faith of a king.
Seriously taken out of context.
Again tell me how Yeshua could be the actual begotten Son of Yahweh and sex did not occur?
Now for sure Miriam was a virgin before conceiving Yahweh's Son. But after she is no longer defined as a virgin. The phrase virgin Mary does not occur in the scriptures.
Now the Catholics believe that Miriam was a virgin her whole life, even after delivering Yeshua.
There are other scriptures where Yahweh caused women to be pregnant but their offspring was not a God. Not the same conception as happened with Yahweh and Miriam.
 

Lambano

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The Koine Greek ginosko (“knew”) is indeed a standard idiom for sexual relations, but heos (“until”) does not, in Greek or in Scripture, inherently imply that the opposite happened afterward. Scripture itself disproves that assumption. For example, 2 Samuel 6:23 says, “Michal had no children until the day of her death.” No one concludes she began bearing children after she died. In such cases, heōs marks a boundary, not a change of state.
Matthew had a choice to set the boundary at Jesus's birth or the end of Mary's life. Either would have established his theological point. His choice of when to set the boundary implies volumes in both cases. That's just the way human language works.
 
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David in NJ

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No I am not Jehovah's Witness. LOL Are you atheist? Can you read?
Isaiah 7:14 is plucked out of a long storyline about testing the faith of a king.
Seriously taken out of context.
This gave me a good lol = especially "Can you read?"

Let's apply that question to the AUTHOR of TRUTH in Matthew

@Grailhunter - Can you read Matthew ch1

Now the birth of Jesus Christ was as follows: After His mother Mary was betrothed to Joseph, before they came together/sex,
she(virgin) was found with child of the Holy Spirit.
Then Joseph her husband, being a just man, and not wanting to make her a public example, was minded to put her away secretly.
But while he thought about these things, behold, an angel of the Lord appeared to him in a dream, saying, “Joseph, son of David, do not be afraid to take to you Mary your wife, for that which is conceived in her is of the Holy Spirit.
And she will bring forth a Son, and you shall call His name Jesus, for He will save His people from their sins.”

So all this was done that it might be fulfilled which was spoken by the Lord through the prophet, saying:
“Behold, the virgin shall be with child, and bear a Son, and they shall call His name Immanuel,” which is translated, “God with us.


KAPISH?
 

Grailhunter

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This gave me a good lol = especially "Can you read?"

Let's apply that question to the AUTHOR of TRUTH in Matthew

@Grailhunter - Can you read Matthew ch1

Now the birth of Jesus Christ was as follows: After His mother Mary was betrothed to Joseph, before they came together/sex,
she was found with child of the Holy Spirit.
Then Joseph her husband, being a just man, and not wanting to make her a public example, was minded to put her away secretly.
But while he thought about these things, behold, an angel of the Lord appeared to him in a dream, saying, “Joseph, son of David, do not be afraid to take to you Mary your wife, for that which is conceived in her is of the Holy Spirit.
And she will bring forth a Son, and you shall call His name Jesus, for He will save His people from their sins.”

So all this was done that it might be fulfilled which was spoken by the Lord through the prophet, saying:
“Behold, the virgin shall be with child, and bear a Son, and they shall call His name Immanuel,” which is translated, “God with us.


KAPISH?

Still nothing to say that sex did not produce Yeshua. And yes I agree that the Holy Spirit was involved with Yahweh siring Yeshua. And Immanuel as a name.....close Yeshua means Yahweh saves. Immanuel is more of a title than a name. No one referred to Him as Immanuel in the New Testament. And Immanuel said.....nope.
And again read Isaiah chapter 7 slowly.
 

Davy

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People like to superimpose their beliefs on the scriptures. But the scriptures do not say Yahweh did not have sex with Miriam.

The very thing you falsely accuse others of you blatantly do. No... God did not literally have sex with the virgin Mary.


Matt 1:18
18 Now the birth of Jesus Christ was on this wise: When as his mother Mary was espoused to Joseph,
before they came together, she was found with child of the Holy Ghost.
KJV

Luke 1:34-35
34 Then said Mary unto the angel,
"How shall this be, seeing I know not a man?"
35 And the angel answered and said unto her, The Holy Ghost shall come upon thee, and the power of the Highest shall overshadow thee: therefore also that holy thing which shall be born of thee shall be called the Son of God.
KJV


Maybe you think conception of a child's spirit with soul into flesh woman's womb is from men's stupid theories of 'evolution' or something.

Go back to your Babylonian Talmud, since you don't care to recognize The New Testament Scriptures.
 

Davy

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Behold the virgin be with child.....That was talking about Isaiah wife and virgin could mean a woman that had not had a child. The words conceived, pregnant, and begotten and son have meanings. And to be the Son of Yahweh He had to be begotten of Yahweh.
The angel answered and said to her, “The Holy Spirit will come upon you, and the power of the Most High will overshadow you; and for that reason the holy Child shall be called the Son of God. Luke 1:35
Still most every reference points to sex.

NUTS!
 

Grailhunter

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The very thing you falsely accuse others of you blatantly do. No... God did not literally have sex with the virgin Mary.


Matt 1:18
18 Now the birth of Jesus Christ was on this wise: When as his mother Mary was espoused to Joseph,
before they came together, she was found with child of the Holy Ghost.
KJV

Luke 1:34-35
34 Then said Mary unto the angel,
"How shall this be, seeing I know not a man?"
35 And the angel answered and said unto her, The Holy Ghost shall come upon thee, and the power of the Highest shall overshadow thee: therefore also that holy thing which shall be born of thee shall be called the Son of God.
KJV


Maybe you think conception of a child's spirit with soul into flesh woman's womb is from men's stupid theories of 'evolution' or something.

Go back to your Babylonian Talmud, since you don't care to recognize The New Testament Scriptures.

LOL Still nothing to say begotten happens without sex. Or how Yeshua could be the Son of Yahweh without sex.
As a Theologian I do not care how Yeshua was conceived, I just go with what the scriptures imply. You still have not described how you think Yeshua could be the actual Son of Yahweh without sex.
Now if the scriptures said that Yahweh miraculously placed His seed in Miriam then it would mean.....Miriam was impregnated without sex. But it does not say that. If Yahweh just caused Miriam to be pregnant then Yeshua was a creation not the Son of God.
 

Davy

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LOL Still nothing to say begotten happens without sex. Or how Yeshua could be the Son of Yahweh without sex.
As a Theologian I do not care how Yeshua was conceived, I just go with what the scriptures imply. You still have not described how you think Yeshua could be the actual Son of Yahweh without sex.
Now if the scriptures said that Yahweh miraculously placed His seed in Miriam then it would mean.....Miriam was impregnated without sex. But it does not say that. If Yahweh just caused Miriam to be pregnant then Yeshua was a creation not the Son of God.

Your mind is in the gutter. Too much of the stupid Babylonian Talmud sage philosophy, obviously.
 

Grailhunter

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Your mind is in the gutter. Too much of the stupid Babylonian Talmud sage philosophy, obviously.

This is the emotions that I run into. OH MY GOD YOU ARE CRAZY! GOD WOULD NEVER DO SOMETHING AS DIRTY AND NASTY AND SINFUL AND OF THE DEVIL! LOL
Got to read the scriptures. Divine beings can have sex with and impregnate human females. The sons of God had sex and impregnated women and married them.
And I could not careless about the Talmud. This is scripture.
 

Davy

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This is the emotions that I run into. OH MY GOD YOU ARE CRAZY! GOD WOULD NEVER DO SOMETHING AS DIRTY AND NASTY AND SINFUL AND OF THE DEVIL! LOL
Got to read the scriptures. Divine beings can have sex with and impregnate human females. The sons of God had sex and impregnated women and married them.
And I could not careless about the Talmud. This is scripture.

In the gutter, like I said, even more so, since GOD is not of the fallen angels that rebelled with Satan.
 
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David in NJ

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Still nothing to say that sex did not produce Yeshua. And yes I agree that the Holy Spirit was involved with Yahweh siring Yeshua. And Immanuel as a name.....close Yeshua means Yahweh saves. Immanuel is more of a title than a name. No one referred to Him as Immanuel in the New Testament. And Immanuel said.....nope.
And again read Isaiah chapter 7 slowly.
Yahweh did not "sire" Yeshua like i did with my wife and BING-BANG-BOOM 6 kids later
 
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Grailhunter

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You obviously don't understand the Power of God, and instead listen to your flesh. Grow up.

You obviously cannot read the scriptures.
The scriptures say the power of God begot a Son.
If Yeshua was not from Yahweh's seed......we could call Him a lot of things....but not the Son of God.
 

Grailhunter

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Absolutely

What was begotten?
a.) The WORD that was GOD from the Beginning - John 1:1
b.) "a body YOU have prepared for ME" - Hebrews 10:5

Begotten.....
In these contexts, begotten refers simply to physical generation-a father producing offspring.
 

David in NJ

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Begotten.....
In these contexts, begotten refers simply to physical generation-a father producing offspring.
Again - Which one was 'begotten'?
a.) The WORD that was GOD from the Beginning - John 1:1
b.) "a body YOU have prepared for ME" - Hebrews 10:5

a? or b?
 

Grailhunter

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Again - Which one was 'begotten'?
a.) The WORD that was GOD from the Beginning - John 1:1
b.) "a body YOU have prepared for ME" - Hebrews 10:5

a? or b?

They are scripture but another topic. But I would like to know what "a body YOU have prepared for Me" means?
Because of the words and the terms used and the occurrences in the scriptures .…begotten, conceived ….impregnate….delivery of a baby that is defined as the Son of Yahweh….Because of the significance that Yeshua is the actual Son of Yahweh born of a woman, it had to be from His seed or He would not be called the Son of God.

Because any other explanation other then the normal process, involves words that are not biblically connected to this event.