You need to look a little deeper into the Greek...
Monogenes (μονογενής) has two primary definitions, "pertaining to being the only one of its kind within a specific relationship" and "pertaining to being the only one of its kind or class, unique in kind".
[1] Its Greek meaning is often applied to mean "one of a kind, one and only".
[2] Monogenēs may be used as an
adjective. For example,
monogenēs pais means only child, only legitimate child or special child.
[3] Monogenēs may also be used on its own as a
noun. For example, ὁ μονογενής (ho monogenēs) means "the only one", or "the only legitimate child"
In this case for sure it is a child.....a woman was impregnated and the only Son of Yahweh was delivered by Miriam.
The Jehovah's Witnesses take words and change the meaning or insert them out of context. Save your effort I have a college education in the biblical languages.
What could they do? tell them that there is no prophecies that fit! But definitely cherry picking. Nothing in the story about a Messiah or a Messiah that is crucified. Nothing about saving their souls.
3 Then I made love to the prophetess, and she conceived and gave birth to a son. And the Lord said to me, “Name him Maher-Shalal-Hash-Baz Isaiah 8:3 NIV
3 So I approached the prophetess, and she conceived and gave birth to a son. Then the Lord said to me, “Name him Maher-shalal-hash-baz; Isaiah 8:3 NASB
3 And I went to the prophetess, and she conceived and bore a son. Then the Lord said to me, “Call his name Maher-shalal-hash-baz; Isaiah 8:3
How many ways do you want it.
No contest on Joseph holding off making love to Miriam until after Yeshua was born.
Your reply doesn’t actually address the points I raised. You quoted standard lexical definitions of
monogenes, but none of the definitions you listed mean “sexually generated,” and you didn’t provide a single example where the New Testament uses
monogenes to describe sexual reproduction. Matthew explicitly denies sexual conception in Jesus’ case:
“Before they came together She was found to be with child of the Holy Spirit” (Matthew 1:18) and
“that which is conceived in Her is of the Holy Spirit” (Matthew 1:20). Appealing to credentials doesn’t change the Greek or Matthew’s narrative.
Your comments on Isaiah 7 also don’t engage the argument. Isaiah 7 is a historical episode involving Ahaz, but Matthew explicitly says the prophecy finds its fulfillment in Christ:
“All this took place to fulfill what the Lord had spoken by the prophet” (Matthew 1:22). That is standard Second‑Temple Jewish typology—an immediate historical meaning and a later, fuller realization. Simply repeating “cherry picking” doesn’t address Matthew’s own hermeneutics.
Quoting Isaiah 8:3 three times doesn’t establish that the prophetess is the
‘almah of Isaiah 7:14. Isaiah’s wife is called
“the prophetess” in 8:3, and the text never identifies her with the
‘almah. These are two different women in two different contexts. Nothing in Isaiah 7 says the sign‑child is Maher‑shalal‑hash‑baz, and nothing in Isaiah 8 says the prophetess is the
‘almah. And
‘almah does not mean “a woman who has had sex but not yet had a baby.” Hebrew has words for a woman who has had intercourse (
ishah) and for a woman who has given birth (
yōledet). The Septuagint translators—long before Christianity—rendered
‘almah as
parthenos, which unambiguously means “virgin.” Matthew follows that translation.
Finally, you conceded the linguistic point about
heos in Matthew 1:25. The phrasing
"he did not know Her until She had borne a Son" corresponds directly to the Greek syntax of
heos. In Koine Greek,
heos marks the boundary relevant to Matthew’s theological claim—Joseph had no role in the conception. It does not imply a change afterward, just as
“Michal the daughter of Saul had no child until the day of her death” (2 Samuel 6:23) does not imply she began bearing children after she died. Matthew’s concern is the divine origin of Jesus and the virginity of Mary at His birth.