The Dueterocanonicals: Myths vs Facts

  • Welcome to Christian Forums, a Christian Forum that recognizes that all Christians are a work in progress.

    You will need to register to be able to join in fellowship with Christians all over the world.

    We hope to see you as a part of our community soon and God Bless!

OzSpen

Well-Known Member
Mar 30, 2015
3,728
795
113
Brisbane, Qld., Australia
spencer.gear.dyndns.org
Faith
Christian
Country
Australia
Stranger said:
And I asked you to tell me where is the oldest copy of the Septuagint.

If you believe the letter of Aristeas is true, then your the first one I've come across. The sad thing is that those who recognize it as a fraud, still hold to the existence of a 'Septuagint'.

(The New International Dictionary of the Christian Church, Douglas, 1981, p.897) " In the Letter of Aristeas (second century B.C.), it is alleged that seventy-two Jewish translators sent from Jerusalem produced the version for Ptolemy II...for his library. This cannot be accepted as historically true, but it contains reliable indications...."

(A General Introduction to the Bible, Geisler and Nix, 1976, p.307-308) "The Letter of Aristeas relates that the librarian at Alexandria persuaded Ptolemy Philadelphus to translate the Torah into Greek for use by Alexandrian Jews. As a result, six translators were selected from each of the twelve tribes, and the translation was completed in just seventy-two days. The details of this story are undoubtedly fictitious, but the letter does relate the authentic fact that the LXX was translated for the use of Greek-speaking Jews of Alexandria."

(The Canon of Scripture, F.F. Bruce, 1988, p.44) " In the course of time a legend attached itself to this Greek version of the law, telling how it was the work of seventy or rather seventy-two elders of Israel who were brought to Alexandria for the purpose. It is because of this legend that the term Septuagint...came to be attached to the version."


So, you see. The idea of a Septuagint is based on a fraudulent letter. As to why these men want to still hold to a Septuagint is beyond me. Rylands Papyrus 458 is no proof of a Septuagint. It is certainly a Greek translation of a small portion of Deuteronomy. But that in no way indicates it came from a 'Septuagint'.

Im not asking for a full manuscript dating back to 2nd century B.C. Im asking where is the oldest copy of the Septuagint?

Stranger
Truth is 'Stranger' than fiction!

I note a couple of things in your post:

(1) You are selective in what you quote from resources.

Take this one example from Geisler & Nix which you quoted. I happen to have a hard copy of this excellent book in my library, but mine is a 1986 edition and your quote is on pp 503-504 of this edition. You wrote:

(A General Introduction to the Bible, Geisler and Nix, 1976, p.307-308) "The Letter of Aristeas relates that the librarian at Alexandria persuaded Ptolemy Philadelphus to translate the Torah into Greek for use by Alexandrian Jews. As a result, six translators were selected from each of the twelve tribes, and the translation was completed in just seventy-two days. The details of this story are undoubtedly fictitious, but the letter does relate the authentic fact that the LXX was translated for the use of Greek-speaking Jews of Alexandria."

While admitting that this Letter of Aristeas is fictitious, Geisler & Nix stated, ‘the letter does relate the authentic fact that the LXX was translated for the use of Greek-speaking Jews of Alexandria’. Did you miss that emphasis?
What else did Geisler & Nix state about the LXX that you left out of the pages from which you quoted?

Just as the Jews had abandoned their native Hebrew tongue for Aramaic in the Near East, so they abandoned the Aramaic in favor of Greek in such Hellenistic centers as Alexandria, Egypt….. It was during the reign of Ptolemy Philadelphus that full political and religious rights were granted to the Jews…. It was in that period (c. 250 – c. 150 B.C.), that the Hebrew Old Testament was being translated into Greek – the first time it had ever been extensively translated. The leaders of Alexandrian Jewry had a standard Greek version produced, known as the LXX, the Greek word for “seventy”. It was undoubtedly translated during the third and/or second centuries B.C. and was purported to have been written as early as the time of Ptolemy II in a Letter of Aristeas to Philocartes (c. 130-100 B.C.) [Geisler & Nix 1986:503].
I find it amazing that you want to deny the existence of the Septuagint and try to use Geisler & Nix to support your view, but these 2 authors affirm the authenticity of the LXX. Could you have a blind spot for the context when you quoted from these authors?


(2) What does the research say about the authenticity of the Letter of Aristeas?

The Catholic Encyclopedia’s article on the ‘Septuagint Version’ provides this criticism of the Letter of Aristeas:
(1) The letter of Aristeas is certainly apocryphal. The writer, who calls himself Aristeas and says he is a Greek and a pagan, shows by his whole work that he is a pious, zealous Jew: he recognizes the God of the Jews as the one true God; he declares that God is the author of the Mosaic law; he is an enthusiastic admirer of the Temple of Jerusalem, the Jewish land and people, and its holy laws and learned men.

(2) The account as given in the letter must be regarded as fabulous and legendary, at least in several parts. Some of the details, such as the official intervention of the king and the high priest, the number of the seventy-two translators, the seventy-two questions they had to answer, the seventy-two days they took for their work, are clearly arbitrary assertions; it is difficult, moreover, to admit that the Alexandrian Jews adopted for their public worship a translation of the Law, made at the request of a pagan king; lastly, the very language of the Septuagint Version betrays in places a rather imperfect knowledge both of Hebrew and of the topography of Palestine, and corresponds more closely with the vulgar idiom of Alexandria. Yet it is not certain that everything contained in the letter is legendary, and scholars ask if there is not a historic foundation underneath the legendary details. Indeed it is likely — as appears from the peculiar character of the language, as well as from what we know of the origin and history of the version — that the Pentateuch was translated at Alexandria. It seems true also that it dates from the time of Ptolemy Philadelphus, and therefore from the middle of the third century B.C. For if, as is commonly believed, Aristeas's letter was written about 200 B.C., fifty years after the death of Philadelphus, and with a view to increase the authority of the Greek version of the Law, would it have been accepted so easily and spread broadcast, if it had been fictitious, and if the time of the composition did not correspond with the reality? Moreover, it is possible that Ptolemy had something to do with the preparation or publishing of the translation, though how and why cannot be determined now. Was it for the purpose of enriching his library as Pseudo-Aristeas states? This is possible, but is not proven, while, as will be shown below, we can very well account for the origin of the version [of the Septuagint] independently of the king (emphasis added).
So this article points to a possible ‘historic foundation’ of the apocryphal letter an the can account for the origin of the Septuagint. My, oh, my that bursts your anti-Septuagint balloon.

(3) As for the earliest copy of the Septuagint.

I’ve already provided you with that information and I won’t be saying it again as you refuse to accept that evidence. Your presupposition is that the Septuagint does not exist, so matter what evidence others and I provide, you refuse to accept it.

If you want the earliest full copy of the Septuagint, you are erecting a straw man fallacy. Your claim is that ‘the idea of a Septuagint is based on a fraudulent letter’. This is false. The Letter of Aristeas is only one piece of evidence and scholarship supports some historical background to this apocryphal letter. There is further evidence in Philo and Josephus.

In fact, ‘It should be noted that the term Septuagint applies strictly to the Pentateuch, which was probably the only portion of the Old Testament translated during the time of Ptolemy II Philadelphus’ (Geisler & Nix 1986:503, n 26).

F F Bruce wrote that

the Jews might have gone on at a later time to authorize a standard text of the rest of the Septuagint, but … they lost interest in the Septuagint altogether. With but few exceptions, every manuscript of the Septuagint which has come down to our day was copied and preserved in Christian, not Jewish, circles. The latest exceptions to this general rule have been fragments of the Septuagint from the Dead Sea caves. The fourth cave at Qumran has yielded pieces of two manuscripts of Leviticus and one of Numbers, while the seventh cave has yielded pieces of the Septuagint text of Exodus and of the Epistle of Jeremiah (Bruce 1963:150).
Bye, bye, :rolleyes:


Oz

Works consulted
Bruce, F F 1963. The books and the parchments: Some chapters on the transmission of the Bible, rev ed. Old Tappan, New Jersey: Fleming H. Revell Company.

Geisler, N L & Nix, W E 1986. A general introduction to the Bible, rev ed. Chicago: Moody Press.
 

Stranger

Well-Known Member
Oct 5, 2016
8,826
3,157
113
Texas
Faith
Christian
Country
United States
OzSpen

In your post #51 it was the 'Letter of Aristeas' that you wanted proof of its being a fraud. That was the basis of the quotes I gave. Yes, I know that these believe there is a Septuagint, which I admitted. I tried to give enough of the quote to show that.

At best the letter is 'legendary'. That is a difficult and dishonest thing to try and base something on.

In other words, you are saying there is no copy of the Septuagint anywhere?

Stranger
 

BreadOfLife

Well-Known Member
Jan 2, 2017
20,945
3,391
113
Faith
Christian
Country
United States
Stranger said:
I said Old Testament. Wisdom is an apocryphal work.

By the way, where is the oldest copy of the Septuagint?

Stranger
As I told you back in post #46 - Kepha1 already answered that back in post #43.
I suppose you're going to deny that there even is a post #43 . . .

Anyway - Wisdom is part of the Old Testament that was removed by a Post-Christ, Post Temple Rabbinical school.
 

Stranger

Well-Known Member
Oct 5, 2016
8,826
3,157
113
Texas
Faith
Christian
Country
United States
BreadOfLife said:
As I told you back in post #46 - Kepha1 already answered that back in post #43.
I suppose you're going to deny that there even is a post #43 . . .
Anyway - Wisdom is part of the Old Testament that was removed by a Post-Christ, Post Temple Rabbinical school.
Well, we have established that 'The letter of Aristeas' was a made up story. So the basis of the Septuagint is a made up story.

All that was shown in post #43 was the book of Isaiah found among the Dead Sea Scrolls. How is that a copy of the oldest Septuagint? That book of Isaiah is a Hebrew writing, not Greek. And it is only one book. That proves the superiority of the Masoretic Text.

(How we got the Bible, Neil R. Lightfoot, 1981, p.79) "Our oldest Hebrew manuscripts date no farther back than the ninth century. This might prove to be a difficult barrier for the Old Testament text were it not for the safeguards devised and followed by the Massoretes and the strict rules observed by earlier Jewish scribes.....The Biblical documents of the Dead Sea Scrolls are nothing short of sensational. The most important are the two Isiah scrolls which, although they exhibit many minor differences, confirm beyond doubt the accuracy of our present Hebrew text."

Stranger
 

Stranger

Well-Known Member
Oct 5, 2016
8,826
3,157
113
Texas
Faith
Christian
Country
United States
OzSpen said:
Stranger,

That's baloney, bunkum, nonsense! It's a lie. I have never ever written that. Please repent of your lies against me with this false statement.
It was a question.

Stranger
 

OzSpen

Well-Known Member
Mar 30, 2015
3,728
795
113
Brisbane, Qld., Australia
spencer.gear.dyndns.org
Faith
Christian
Country
Australia
Stranger said:
It was a question.

Stranger
You are the one who doesn't believe there is an LXX. I do and I've provided some research evidence.

But you don't believe in the authenticity of the Septuagint. Evidence of the existence of the oldest copy of the LXX was provided by kepha in #43 but you don't want to accept that.

You are the one whistling in the wind when it comes to dealing with evidence for the LXX.

Bye,
Oz
 

BreadOfLife

Well-Known Member
Jan 2, 2017
20,945
3,391
113
Faith
Christian
Country
United States
Stranger said:
Well, we have established that 'The letter of Aristeas' was a made up story. So the basis of the Septuagint is a made up story.

All that was shown in post #43 was the book of Isaiah found among the Dead Sea Scrolls. How is that a copy of the oldest Septuagint? That book of Isaiah is a Hebrew writing, not Greek. And it is only one book. That proves the superiority of the Masoretic Text.

(How we got the Bible, Neil R. Lightfoot, 1981, p.79) "Our oldest Hebrew manuscripts date no farther back than the ninth century. This might prove to be a difficult barrier for the Old Testament text were it not for the safeguards devised and followed by the Massoretes and the strict rules observed by earlier Jewish scribes.....The Biblical documents of the Dead Sea Scrolls are nothing short of sensational. The most important are the two Isiah scrolls which, although they exhibit many minor differences, confirm beyond doubt the accuracy of our present Hebrew text."

Stranger
WRONG.

We have NOT established that 'The Letter of Aristeas was a "made up story."
As a matter of fact - most scholars agree that portions of it are based on legend but that there is MUCH useful information in it (
Michael S. Heiser, PhD, Hebrew Bible and Semitic Language, University of Wisconsin-Madison):

"The Letter of Aristeas, contains some useful information. Scholars accept Aristeas’ account that the translation was done in Alexandria, Egypt, by Jewish scholars skilled in Greek, but dismiss his account that 70 translators, working independently, produced identical translations, thus demonstrating the inspired nature of the translation.

The NT makes it clear that Jesus, the apostles, and the NT writers frequently used the LXX. Studies have determined that the NT, LXX and MT agree only about 20% of the time. Of the 80% where some disagreement is evident, the NT and MT agree less than 5% of the time. That means that the NT writers use the LXX most of the time when they quote the OT (Jobes and Silva 2000: 189–93)."


Do some REAL research and stop depending on wackos like Jack Chick for your "facts" . . .
 

Stranger

Well-Known Member
Oct 5, 2016
8,826
3,157
113
Texas
Faith
Christian
Country
United States
BreadOfLife said:
WRONG.

We have NOT established that 'The Letter of Aristeas was a "made up story."
As a matter of fact - most scholars agree that portions of it are based on legend but that there is MUCH useful information in it (
Michael S. Heiser, PhD, Hebrew Bible and Semitic Language, University of Wisconsin-Madison):

"The Letter of Aristeas, contains some useful information. Scholars accept Aristeas’ account that the translation was done in Alexandria, Egypt, by Jewish scholars skilled in Greek, but dismiss his account that 70 translators, working independently, produced identical translations, thus demonstrating the inspired nature of the translation.

The NT makes it clear that Jesus, the apostles, and the NT writers frequently used the LXX. Studies have determined that the NT, LXX and MT agree only about 20% of the time. Of the 80% where some disagreement is evident, the NT and MT agree less than 5% of the time. That means that the NT writers use the LXX most of the time when they quote the OT (Jobes and Silva 2000: 189–93)."


Do some REAL research and stop depending on wackos like Jack Chick for your "facts" . . .
Well, the letter claimed that 72 Jewish translators finished their translations in 72 days, all in total agreement. You yourself admit it is 'legend'. That is where supposed Septuagint gets its name. Thus the supposed Septuagint is based on a made up story.

The New Testament does not make it clear that Jesus or other writers ever quoted from any Septuagint. The only place you find the writings of the Old Testament in Greek, other than the Rylands Paprus #458, are the 4th and 5th century A.D. manuscripts called, Vaticanus, Sinaiticus, and Alexandrinus, and in Origens Hexapla about 200 A.D.

The Masoretic Text, also called the Majority Text, also called Textus Receptus, was used in making the KJV Bible. The Minority Text, also called the Alexandrian Text, which contain Vaticanus, Sinaiticus, and Alexandrinus, is used in making most modern Bibles as this is the Text used most by Westcott and Hort.

So, it depends on if your Bible is based on the Majority Text or the Minority Text as to whether or not it appears that the New Testament writers quoted from any Greek New Testament.

The Alexandrian Text is where you find a supposed 'Septuagint'. The legendary 'Septuagint' is probably really nothing but the Alexandrian Text.

Stranger
 

BreadOfLife

Well-Known Member
Jan 2, 2017
20,945
3,391
113
Faith
Christian
Country
United States
Stranger said:
Well, the letter claimed that 72 Jewish translators finished their translations in 72 days, all in total agreement. You yourself admit it is 'legend'. That is where supposed Septuagint gets its name. Thus the supposed Septuagint is based on a made up story.

The New Testament does not make it clear that Jesus or other writers ever quoted from any Septuagint. The only place you find the writings of the Old Testament in Greek, other than the Rylands Paprus #458, are the 4th and 5th century A.D. manuscripts called, Vaticanus, Sinaiticus, and Alexandrinus, and in Origens Hexapla about 200 A.D.

The Masoretic Text, also called the Majority Text, also called Textus Receptus, was used in making the KJV Bible. The Minority Text, also called the Alexandrian Text, which contain Vaticanus, Sinaiticus, and Alexandrinus, is used in making most modern Bibles as this is the Text used most by Westcott and Hort.

So, it depends on if your Bible is based on the Majority Text or the Minority Text as to whether or not it appears that the New Testament writers quoted from any Greek New Testament.

The Alexandrian Text is where you find a supposed 'Septuagint'. The legendary 'Septuagint' is probably really nothing but the Alexandrian Text.

Stranger
And, apparently, YOU have a reading comprehension deficiency.

I never said that the Septuagint was a legend. I stated that certain aspects of the Letter of Aristeas were based on legend.
I ALSO showed you proof that scholarly consensus states that scholars [SIZE=11pt]ACCEPT Aristeas’ account that the translation was done in Alexandria, Egypt, by Jewish scholars skilled in Greek.[/SIZE]

I even showed you a quote from my scholarly evidence that says: The NT makes it clear that Jesus, the apostles, and the NT writers frequently used the LXX.

You lose this debate because you depend wackos like Jack Chick for your so-called "evidence."
 
  • Like
Reactions: tom55

OzSpen

Well-Known Member
Mar 30, 2015
3,728
795
113
Brisbane, Qld., Australia
spencer.gear.dyndns.org
Faith
Christian
Country
Australia
BreadOfLife said:
WRONG.

We have NOT established that 'The Letter of Aristeas was a "made up story."
As a matter of fact - most scholars agree that portions of it are based on legend but that there is MUCH useful information in it (
Michael S. Heiser, PhD, Hebrew Bible and Semitic Language, University of Wisconsin-Madison):

"The Letter of Aristeas, contains some useful information. Scholars accept Aristeas’ account that the translation was done in Alexandria, Egypt, by Jewish scholars skilled in Greek, but dismiss his account that 70 translators, working independently, produced identical translations, thus demonstrating the inspired nature of the translation.

The NT makes it clear that Jesus, the apostles, and the NT writers frequently used the LXX. Studies have determined that the NT, LXX and MT agree only about 20% of the time. Of the 80% where some disagreement is evident, the NT and MT agree less than 5% of the time. That means that the NT writers use the LXX most of the time when they quote the OT (Jobes and Silva 2000: 189–93)."


Do some REAL research and stop depending on wackos like Jack Chick for your "facts" . . .
Well stated! :good_idea:
 
  • Like
Reactions: tom55

epostle1

Well-Known Member
Sep 24, 2012
3,326
507
113
72
Essex
Faith
Christian
Country
Canada
from an Orthodox site:

Why do many modern Christians use the Masoretic text for the Old Testament when it was specifically created to counteract Christians spreading the Gospel message? The answer can be found in a blunder by Martin Luther in the 1500’s.

He desired to create a translation of the Scripture into his native language of German. However, he assumed the best way to get an accurate translation of the Old Testament was to use the Hebrew bible that the Jews in his community read. He did not know that the Old Testament they were familiar with was not the same that Paul and the Apostles read. He did not know the Septuagint had been in existence more than 1,000 years before the altered Masoretic Text.
This current version of the Hebrew Scriptures also did not contain all the books of the Old Testament. The books they did not contain would be called the Apocrypha. To both early Christians and the Jews in the time of Jesus they were just called Scripture. Though he did not remove the so-called Apocrypha from his translation, he did move them to the back of his bible. Later the apocrypha would go from being in the back to being removed completely.

This blunder of Luther has affected bible translation for the last 500 years. The Orthodox church has held to the Septuagint as the faithful translation of the Hebrew scriptures since the times of Paul and the Apostles.
http://www.theorthodoxfaith.com/the-bible-of-the-early-church/

Bottom line: Stranger is defending Luther's errors.
 

Stranger

Well-Known Member
Oct 5, 2016
8,826
3,157
113
Texas
Faith
Christian
Country
United States
kepha31 said:
from an Orthodox site:

Why do many modern Christians use the Masoretic text for the Old Testament when it was specifically created to counteract Christians spreading the Gospel message? The answer can be found in a blunder by Martin Luther in the 1500’s.

He desired to create a translation of the Scripture into his native language of German. However, he assumed the best way to get an accurate translation of the Old Testament was to use the Hebrew bible that the Jews in his community read. He did not know that the Old Testament they were familiar with was not the same that Paul and the Apostles read. He did not know the Septuagint had been in existence more than 1,000 years before the altered Masoretic Text.
This current version of the Hebrew Scriptures also did not contain all the books of the Old Testament. The books they did not contain would be called the Apocrypha. To both early Christians and the Jews in the time of Jesus they were just called Scripture. Though he did not remove the so-called Apocrypha from his translation, he did move them to the back of his bible. Later the apocrypha would go from being in the back to being removed completely.

This blunder of Luther has affected bible translation for the last 500 years. The Orthodox church has held to the Septuagint as the faithful translation of the Hebrew scriptures since the times of Paul and the Apostles.
http://www.theorthodoxfaith.com/the-bible-of-the-early-church/

Bottom line: Stranger is defending Luther's errors.
What is the web-site basing its statement on, that the Masoretic Text was created to hinder the Christians from spreading the Gospel? They already had their Text. They were adding vowels and accent marks to guard it from changes. The Septuagint was never received by the Palestinian Jews.

You assume Paul and others read the Septuagint. Earliest Septuagint is from Origen about 200 A.D. Where do you (or your link) get your numbers and dates when you say the Septuagint had been in existance 1000 years before the altered Masoretic Text? What is the math? I don't see it.

The Hebrew Text, the Masoretic Text, did not contain the Apocrypha because they reject them as Scripture. You (or your link) simply assume the Apocrypha were called Scripture by Jesus and early Christians.

The Apocrypha needed to be removed completely because it was never seen as Scripture. Having it in the same book as 'not Scripture' but maybe "some benefit as history or literature", was confusing.

Stranger
 

OzSpen

Well-Known Member
Mar 30, 2015
3,728
795
113
Brisbane, Qld., Australia
spencer.gear.dyndns.org
Faith
Christian
Country
Australia
kepha31 said:
from an Orthodox site:

Why do many modern Christians use the Masoretic text for the Old Testament when it was specifically created to counteract Christians spreading the Gospel message? The answer can be found in a blunder by Martin Luther in the 1500’s.
kepha,

There is not one piece of documentation on that Orthodox Church website to support the truth of this statement. It is nothing more than an Orthodox assertion without historical proof.

Oz
 

epostle1

Well-Known Member
Sep 24, 2012
3,326
507
113
72
Essex
Faith
Christian
Country
Canada
oops. my bad. (at least I can take correction and admit a mistake)