The lies about gen 6

[Marty fox]

"When men began to multiply on the face of the ground, and daughters were born to them, the sons of God saw that the daughters of men were fair; and they took to wife such of them as they chose. Then the Lord said, "My spirit shall not abide in man for ever, for he is flesh, but his days shall be a hundred and twenty years. "The Nephilim were on the earth in those days, and also afterward, when the sons of God came in to the daughters of men, and they bore children to them. These were the mighty men that were of old, the men of renown.

"...And the Lord was sorry that he had made man on the earth,
and it grieved him to his heart. Gen 6:1-4,6...​

Transliteration: šēm
Gesenius' Hebrew-Chaldee Lexicon - Sons of men (Gen. 6:4) --- "famous men"
Outline of Biblical Usage : name, reputation, fame, glory,

My research says that "the sons of God" refer to those descendants of Seth who trusted in the Lord but whose children intermarried with women descended from Cain. The marriage union was not with angels but one consummated between the godly and ungodly families of men. Angels neither marry nor are given in marriage so that the verse hardly applies to them.

This was with the generation of Noah just prior to the flood where God speaks of his judgment indicating that he is displeased with the wickedness of men and therefore decides to destroy that entire generation - with the exception of Noah's family.

This is a great "shadow" of what of the next and final destruction of all unbelievers at the end of this age will be like but with fire this time instead of water. Sodom and Gomorrah is the "mini-foreshadow" of that Last Day event.

This "flood" was due to "believers intermarrying with "unbelievers" just as the Samaritans had done at the time of Jesus; Jews intermarried with the Assyrians while they were in captivity. Then the "devout" Jews of Judah considered the Samaritans to be "defiled."

I also see our present day status of our so-called "Christian" country as being the same as the Noahadic flood conditions of Noah's time as well as the same conditions that Lot was under with the Sodomites of Sodom and Gomorrah that was destroyed for their ungodliness. Is not our country just like those times? I think so. God's "church" is in many ways now barely recognizable as a "true Christian church."

2 Corinthians 6:14-16..."Do not be bound together with unbelievers; for what partnership have righteousness and lawlessness, or what fellowship has light with darkness? Or what harmony has Christ with Belial, or what has a believer in common with an unbeliever? Or what agreement has the temple of God with idols? For we are the temple of the living God; just as God said,​

“I will dwell in them and walk among them;
And I will be their God, and they shall be My people.​

Yes amen

 

[theefaith]

Behold thy mother!

What does Behold in scripture mean?

A marvelous thing!
A miraculous action!
A wonder!
An awe inspiring declaration!

Behold thy mother!

John 19:26-27
When Jesus therefore saw his mother, and the disciple standing by, whom he loved, he saith unto his mother, Woman, behold thy son! Then saith has he to the disciple, Behold thy mother! And from that hour that disciple took her unto his own home.

Jesus is not asking John to care for His mother, if so He would have said so, he is not even speaking to John, scripture says He is addressing the disciple, therefore it applies to all disciples.

Jesus is making Mary spiritual mother to all disciples! And all disciples take Her into thier home, And if the apostle John needs a spiritual mother so do we!

What is the family of God without a mother? The mother is the heart of the family! Jesus said I will not leave you orphans! Jn 14:18 He gave Mary to be the mother of one disciple then He does so for all disciples!

As eve was the mother of all the living in the first creation, gen 3:20 so Mary is the mother of all those who live in Christ and the new creation! Behold, I make all things new!

Rev 12:17 our spiritual mother!

Rachel is spiritual mother of Israel!
A type of Mary as spiritual mother of Christians!

The 12 sons of Jacob have 4 biological mothers, but Rachel is the spiritual mother of all Israel!

Matt 2:18 In Rama was there a voice heard, lamentation, and weeping, and great mourning, Rachel weeping for her children, and would not be comforted, because they are no more.

 

[theefaith]

What’s wrong with the rosary, gospel meditation on the life death and resurrection of Christ with biblical prayers!

the Lord’s Prayer and the angelic salutation

Good enough for Angels!
Good enough for the Bible!
Good enough for me!

Hail Mary! Full of grace, the Lord is with thee, blessed art thou among women,
Lk 1:28 blessed is the fruit of thy womb, (Jesus) Lk 1:42 Holy Mary, mother of God, Lk 1:43 pray for us sinners, now,
rev 5:8 and at the hour of our death, Matt 24:13 amen!

It is really God who greeting Mary with the “Hail Mary”!
Lk 1:26 & Lk 1:45

 

[theefaith]

A good tree!

Matthew 7:18
A good tree cannot bring forth evil fruit, neither can a corrupt tree bring forth good fruit.

The fruit of the tree of Mary is our salvation! Matt 1:21 Lk 2:30 Jesus is our salvation! This reflects the immaculate conception of Mary and the miraculous conception of Jesus!
Lk 1:30 Mary found our salvation!
Lk 1:38 consented to our salvation!

A good tree (immaculate conception) Lk 1:49 God has done this and it is marvelous in our eyes!

Isa 7:14 Therefore the Lord himself shall give you a sign; Behold, a virgin shall conceive, and bear a son, and shall call his name Immanuel.

Matt 1:23 Behold, a virgin shall be with child, and shall bring forth a son, and they shall call his name Emmanuel, which being interpreted is, God with us.

A sinner would be an evil tree with evil fruit, but the fruit of Mary is salvation!

Mary brings in the good fruits of our redemption and salvation!

 

[theefaith]

If Jesus is you’re brother, Mary must be youre mother

Behold thy mother!

What does Behold in scripture mean?

A marvelous thing!
A miraculous action!
A wonder!
An awe inspiring declaration!

Behold thy mother!

John 19:26-27
When Jesus therefore saw his mother, and the disciple standing by, whom he loved, he saith unto his mother, Woman, behold thy son! Then saith has he to the disciple, Behold thy mother! And from that hour that disciple took her unto his own home.

Jesus is not asking John to care for His mother, if so He would have said so, he is not even speaking to John, scripture says He is addressing the disciple, therefore it applies to all disciples.

Jesus is making Mary spiritual mother to all disciples! And all disciples take Her into thier home, And if the apostle John needs a spiritual mother so do we!

What is the family of God without a mother? The mother is the heart of the family! Jesus said I will not leave you orphans! Jn 14:18 He gave Mary to be the mother of one disciple then He does so for all disciples!

As eve was the mother of all the living in the first creation, gen 3:20 so Mary is the mother of all those who live in Christ and the new creation! Behold, I make all things new!

Rev 12:17 our spiritual mother!

Rachel is spiritual mother of Israel!
A type of Mary as spiritual mother of Christians!

The 12 sons of Jacob have 4 biological mothers, but Rachel is the spiritual mother of all Israel!

Matt 2:18 In Rama was there a voice heard, lamentation, and weeping, and great mourning, Rachel weeping for her children, and would not be comforted, because they are no more.

 

[Moriah's Song]

John 19:26-27
When Jesus therefore saw his mother, and the disciple standing by, whom he loved, he saith unto his mother, Woman, behold thy son! Then saith has he to the disciple, Behold thy mother! And from that hour that disciple took her unto his own home.

Jesus gave his mother to John and not to his half/siblings because Jesus, who knows what the future for his siblings was going to be, also knew that John would be the last to be beheaded. Therefore, it was because he wanted Mary to be taken care of that Jesus gave his mother to John. That shows how much he cared for his mother.

 

[theefaith]

Jesus gave his mother to John and not to his half/siblings because Jesus, who knows what the future for his siblings was going to be, also knew that John would be the last to be beheaded. Therefore, it was because he wanted Mary to be taken care of that Jesus gave his mother to John. That shows how much he cared for his mother.

a care taker does not need be a son

John is Mary’s spiritual son and he represents all Christians for it says to the disciple so it applies to all disciples

 

[Ronald Nolette]

The sons of God were all created on the 6th day. The angels were created on day 4 as they are called the stars.

So you believe Adam and Eve were not the only humans created by God as it says in Scripture on the sixth day?

The sons of God are just other humans besides Adam created on the 6th day. God created many humans male and female on day 6.

Not according to Scripture! You are just making unbiblical supoositions.

Sounds like an interpretive fallacy. Words and phrases mean what they mean based on the context in which they are used. They do not always retain the same meaning in all instances. Can you imagine my calling you a "stick in the mud" and insist the meaning of the phrase remain consistent with its normal use? I could see clouds passing over that look like men with halos and call them "children of God!"

The "host of heaven" may refer either to angels or to the stars. The "sons of God," therefore, may refer to either angels or men. Your argument doesn't work--you need to rely on the context.

well then prove by
Scripture that God means humns here where in all other OT uses it is angels. We make things mean different things, that is called idioms or metaphors- so show God was being metaphorical when He called angels "sons of God". and literal when He called sons of God human in genesis 6.

Just because you make an argument from logic does not mean it applies here. You need to show it applies according to you rargument.

 

[Ronald Nolette]

Well, it may be interesting trying to tie all of these tidbits together to form an "angelology." But the simple truth is, we are discouraged from pursuing these kinds of celestial revelations. It is similar to fortune telling and the occult.

Wrong again, as it says in Jeremiah, we establish doctrine by drawing the facts from the various scriptures, as Jeremiah said, here a little, there a little.

Drawing conclusions when things are being suggested is reasonable. It is not a contradiction, nor is it "adding something inconsistent." Can you imagine that I accuse you of "thinking something?

If sons of god was only written in Gensis 6 yeah we can draw a reasonable conclusion. But god is not men, He is far more careful with language than we are! When all other times that term is angels- it is powerful evidence it means the same in genesis 6 as well. Human reaon may seem it reasonable that they could be men- but we are to trust the Lord and not read between the lines. That is how cults start.

The "host of heaven" may refer either to angels or to the stars. The "sons of God," therefore, may refer to either angels or men. Your argument doesn't work--you need to rely on the context.

Correct on context, but when there is no other context where it means men- you need more than reasonable reading between the lines to define it other than every time in Scripture (OT) it is defined.

Why wouldn't the Septuagint be "germane?" After all, biblical authors quoted it. If they can, so can we. And it may help us understand how the Hebrew can be rendered in another language without losing its original meaning.

MAY? that sounds like how scientists defend the false hypothesis of evolution! Well then you trust the original translated into Greek then translated in to English? I would prefer to go to the original language! Then I know I have the original meaning.

Not at all. Many of our opinions about what the Scriptures mean are correct opinions. I wouldn't expect an unbeliever to have the right opinions, though.

Well if it is an opinion it is this:

opinion
[əˈpinyən]
NOUN

1. a view or judgment formed about something, not necessarily based on fact or knowledge.
   "I'm writing to voice my opinion on an issue of great importance" ·
   belief · judgment · thought(s) · school of thought · thinking · way of thinking · mind · point of view · view · viewpoint · outlook · angle · slant · side · attitude ·
   [more]
   • the beliefs or views of a large number or majority of people about a particular thing.
     "the changing climate of opinion"
   • (opinion of)
     an estimation of the quality or worth of someone or something.
     "I had a higher opinion of myself than I deserved"
   • a formal statement of advice by an expert on a professional matter.

The bible is not subject to personal opinion in case you never read that. Truth is truth whether it is of ones opinion or not. and th ebible is not an opinion, it is the absolute arbiter of all truth man needs to know. Unbelievers can hold the truth just not believe or accept it. Opinions are like behinds, we all have them and they produce waste and bad smell manytimes.

Angels are not talked about much, period. Everywhere in the OT Israel is called God's People, which translates to "children of God."

Now you are trying to argue by synonyms! We are talking pre-Israel here. and yes those terms are used in teh OT and NT for Israel, but not once are they specifically referred to as the "bene-elohim". If they were then you would have at least empirical biblical evidence for your argument. but all you are doing is making it mean people because Israel is called the children of God! I guess you don't think when God uses something very sparingly in His word and all other uses are descriptive of just one type of being. god is not as colloquial as we are.

Angels are not talked about much, period. Everywhere in the OT Israel is called God's People, which translates to "children of God."

Correct! they are called angels only 10 times in the OT. the word malek also means messenger so context determines meaning.
You are simply making your argument by uses of synonyms and inferring from synonyms. Also opinion and conclusion with secondary and tertiary assumptions that are not written down.

At least I can determine with far more confidence based on the use of the term everywhere else it appears, and that these offspring of the daughters of men and the sons of God are far different than all other offspring. the fact they are called the gibborim, Nephilim and men of fame tells us from the language and not deduction, there was a uniqueness to the offspring of these sinful relations. Also these traits have never again appeared in human to human relations since!

 

[Randy Kluth]

So you believe Adam and Eve were not the only humans created by God as it says in Scripture on the sixth day?

How is that suggestion even relevant?

well then prove by
Scripture that God means humns here where in all other OT uses it is angels.

As I've told you that claim is not a "given." If the passage in question, along with other significant passages that I've mentioned, refer to men as children of God, then you're wrong--all other OT uses of the *concept of children of God* are not in reference to angels.

Your argument seems to be that the unique term applied in Gen 6 requires that the concept of being "children of God" can only be used strictly in the way it is used in Gen 6. Not only are you arguing what you wish to prove, that it is speaking of *angels,* but your whole argument is predicated on an interpretive fallacy.

I don't have to prove that it is an interpretive fallacy. It is. And if so, then you cannot make this argument that a unique use of a biblical term can only be used in the way it is used in another place. The minute it is used differently, then the argument breaks down.

Even if Gen 6 identifies "sons of God" as angels, it does not disprove that "sons of God" cannot be used elsewhere, conceptually, for human children of God! Even if "sons of God" are used elsewhere as applied to angels, this does not prove that use of the same term in Gen 6 must be applied in the same way!

Why don't you try to disprove that "sons of God" cannot be related, conceptually, with the NT sense of becoming "children of God?" Of course, you could try to say that NT atonement is permanent, whereas OT atonement was temporary, as I myself often argue. But that doesn't mean the *concept* of being "children of God" is unrelated from OT to NT. Obviously, Israel was considered as called to be a "son of God" in the OT, and can be completed as such in the NT, as even Paul argues in Romans.

Rom 11.24 After all, if you were cut out of an olive tree that is wild by nature, and contrary to nature were grafted into a cultivated olive tree, how much more readily will these, the natural branches, be grafted into their own olive tree!

The fact mankind was called by God from the beginning to be His children causes future references to "sons of God" to be applicable to men, even though the term may also be applied to angels, who were also created in God's image. I don't need to prove this--it is self-evident. But you cannot prove the concepts of "son of God" and "children of God" are unrelated!

 

[Christ4Me]

a care taker does not need be a son

John is Mary’s spiritual son and he represents all Christians for it says to the disciple so it applies to all disciples

That in turns means John had other spiritual mothers too and not just Mary.

Matthew 12:46 While he yet talked to the people, behold, his mother and his brethren stood without, desiring to speak with him. 47 Then one said unto him, Behold, thy mother and thy brethren stand without, desiring to speak with thee. 48 But he answered and said unto him that told him, Who is my mother? and who are my brethren? 49 And he stretched forth his hand toward his disciples, and said, Behold my mother and my brethren! 50 For whosoever shall do the will of my Father which is in heaven, the same is my brother, and sister, and mother.

Matthew 19:28 And Jesus said unto them, Verily I say unto you, That ye which have followed me, in the regeneration when the Son of man shall sit in the throne of his glory, ye also shall sit upon twelve thrones, judging the twelve tribes of Israel. 29 And every one that hath forsaken houses, or brethren, or sisters, or father, or mother, or wife, or children, or lands, for my name's sake, shall receive an hundredfold, and shall inherit everlasting life.

John will have hundredfold of mothers, sisters, and brothers.

This is why He deferred that woman from honoring Mary to doing something far more important.

Luke 11:27 And it came to pass, as he spake these things, a certain woman of the company lifted up her voice, and said unto him, Blessed is the womb that bare thee, and the paps which thou hast sucked. 28 But he said, Yea rather, blessed are they that hear the word of God, and keep it.

What is the judgment over every believer in the only way in how we are to honor God the Father by?

John 5:22 For the Father judgeth no man, but hath committed all judgment unto the Son: 23 That all men should honour the Son, even as they honour the Father. He that honoureth not the Son honoureth not the Father which hath sent him.

So the moment any one stops honoring the Son but honor Mary or even honoring the Holy Spirit, Whom is God, they are no longer honoring the Father. That is when they are not keeping His word to do it.

Mary Did Not Stay a Virgin

 

[Randy Kluth]

Wrong again, as it says in Jeremiah, we establish doctrine by drawing the facts from the various scriptures, as Jeremiah said, here a little, there a little.

Unlike some I do agree that we can think and reason towards a logical conclusion. It is not all a direct revelation to our minds, void of any learning or reasoning. All I meant to say is that there is an unhealthy bent towards celestial beings that competes with the attention God wants us to have on Him.

If sons of god was only written in Gensis 6 yeah we can draw a reasonable conclusion.

No, a single use of a term in Scripture does not dictate its exclusive use. That would be an *interpretive fallacy.*

Correct on context, but when there is no other context where it means men- you need more than reasonable reading between the lines to define it other than every time in Scripture (OT) it is defined.

That is an *interpretive fallacy.* A term is not being *defined* in Scriptures. The context determines how a word is being used, because a word or a phrase can be used in many different ways. The use of "sons of God" as applied to angels in one passage does not *define* how "sons of God" is to be used in all other passages! So if we see "sons of God" as used for angels elsewhere, that does not mean it has to be used for angels in Gen 6!

Now you are trying to argue by synonyms! We are talking pre-Israel here. and yes those terms are used in teh OT and NT for Israel, but not once are they specifically referred to as the "bene-elohim".

It is entirely reasonable to compare synonyms! Why do you think they are called "synonyms!" And a single variant on a word or concept does *not* prove another related variant or concept does not apply!

In other words, an exclusive form of the term "sons of God" in Gen 6 does not prove that other variants of the same terminology are not worthy of being compared! Even the NT sense of "children of God" may be comparable for our purposes. Distinguishing the term from OT to NT is not prohibitive in comparing use of the word or concept!

Your argument is pure assertion, and cannot avoid use of an interpretive fallacy. You're trying to prove "sons of God" in Gen 6 must be interpreted as "angels" because they are interpreted as such elsewhere in the Bible. You are arguing what you have yet to prove. And you have *not* disproven that NT rebirth is unrelated to the OT concept of being "children of God." They are different but not unrelated terms.

from Common interpretive fallacies of message ministers - BelieveTheSign
Illegitimate totality transfer
Bringing the full meaning of a word with all its nuances to the present usage.

One particular version of the Bible is famous for committing this fallacy, the Amplified Bible, or as some refer to it, the Multiple Choice Bible.

What does Illegitimate Totality Transfer mean? This is a big word in biblical interpretation with an easy definition. It simply means to illegitimately ( wrongly) transfer a word’s total possible meaning, with all its variations and nuances, and forcing them all into a particular context.

For example, if one were to do a word study on the Greek word phile, one would find that it could mean “affection, friendship, love, or kiss.” The context must decide. The illegitimate totality transfer occurs when one forces all of these meanings into one passage, without consideration of which nuance best fits the context. This is a common interpretive fallacy.

In more solid bibles such as the NASB, ESV, or NKJV, the translators do not entrap themselves in this fallacy.

 

[theefaith]

That in turns means John had other spiritual mothers too and not just Mary.

Matthew 12:46 While he yet talked to the people, behold, his mother and his brethren stood without, desiring to speak with him. 47 Then one said unto him, Behold, thy mother and thy brethren stand without, desiring to speak with thee. 48 But he answered and said unto him that told him, Who is my mother? and who are my brethren? 49 And he stretched forth his hand toward his disciples, and said, Behold my mother and my brethren! 50 For whosoever shall do the will of my Father which is in heaven, the same is my brother, and sister, and mother.

Matthew 19:28 And Jesus said unto them, Verily I say unto you, That ye which have followed me, in the regeneration when the Son of man shall sit in the throne of his glory, ye also shall sit upon twelve thrones, judging the twelve tribes of Israel. 29 And every one that hath forsaken houses, or brethren, or sisters, or father, or mother, or wife, or children, or lands, for my name's sake, shall receive an hundredfold, and shall inherit everlasting life.

John will have hundredfold of mothers, sisters, and brothers.

This is why He deferred that woman from honoring Mary to doing something far more important.

Luke 11:27 And it came to pass, as he spake these things, a certain woman of the company lifted up her voice, and said unto him, Blessed is the womb that bare thee, and the paps which thou hast sucked. 28 But he said, Yea rather, blessed are they that hear the word of God, and keep it.

What is the judgment over every believer in the only way in how we are to honor God the Father by?

John 5:22 For the Father judgeth no man, but hath committed all judgment unto the Son: 23 That all men should honour the Son, even as they honour the Father. He that honoureth not the Son honoureth not the Father which hath sent him.

So the moment any one stops honoring the Son but honor Mary or even honoring the Holy Spirit, Whom is God, they are no longer honoring the Father. That is when they are not keeping His word to do it.

Mary Did Not Stay a Virgin

what evidence do have for Mary not being a perpetual virgin?

better speak to Jesus about honoring His mother, for in Lk 11 he is glorifying Mary
None have done the will of God more perfectly! Lk 1:45 And blessed is she that believed: for there shall be a performance of those things which were told her from the Lord.

46 And Mary said, My soul doth magnify the Lord,

 

[Christ4Me]

what evidence do have for Mary not being a perpetual virgin?

better speak to Jesus about honoring His mother, for in Lk 11 he is glorifying Mary
None have done the will of God more perfectly! Lk 1:45 And blessed is she that believed: for there shall be a performance of those things which were told her from the Lord.

46 And Mary said, My soul doth magnify the Lord,

She was not asked to stay a virgin and since being married to Joseph as God joined the two to be one flesh, she was a good wife bearing Joseph children after the birth of Jesus.

Matthew 1:24 Then Joseph being raised from sleep did as the angel of the Lord had bidden him, and took unto him his wife: 25 And knew her not till she had brought forth her firstborn son: and he called his name Jesus.

When pregnant Mary & Joseph had to register at Bethlehem, Joseph had no other children from another wife that was deceased to register with them.

When Joseph & Mary had to flee to Egypt because of King Herod, again, no other children were with them, but Jesus after He was born.

It would be irresponsible & a shame for Joseph to neglect his own children during that time if he had some from another wife that was deceased.

So Mary was a good wife to Joseph in bearing him children after the birth of Jesus.

Mark 6:1And he went out from thence, and came into his own country; and his disciples follow him. 2 And when the sabbath day was come, he began to teach in the synagogue: and many hearing him were astonished, saying, From whence hath this man these things? and what wisdom is this which is given unto him, that even such mighty works are wrought by his hands? 3 Is not this the carpenter, the son of Mary, the brother of James, and Joses, and of Juda, and Simon? and are not his sisters here with us? And they were offended at him. 4 But Jesus, said unto them, A prophet is not without honour, but in his own country, and among his own kin, and in his own house. 5 And he could there do no mighty work, save that he laid his hands upon a few sick folk, and healed them. 6 And he marvelled because of their unbelief. And he went round about the villages, teaching.

 

[theefaith]

She was not asked to stay a virgin and since being married to Joseph as God joined the two to be one flesh, she was a good wife bearing Joseph children after the birth of Jesus.

Matthew 1:24 Then Joseph being raised from sleep did as the angel of the Lord had bidden him, and took unto him his wife: 25 And knew her not till she had brought forth her firstborn son: and he called his name Jesus.

When pregnant Mary & Joseph had to register at Bethlehem, Joseph had no other children from another wife that was deceased to register with them.

When Joseph & Mary had to flee to Egypt because of King Herod, again, no other children were with them, but Jesus after He was born.

It would be irresponsible & a shame for Joseph to neglect his own children during that time if he had some from another wife that was deceased.

So Mary was a good wife to Joseph in bearing him children after the birth of Jesus.

Mark 6:1And he went out from thence, and came into his own country; and his disciples follow him. 2 And when the sabbath day was come, he began to teach in the synagogue: and many hearing him were astonished, saying, From whence hath this man these things? and what wisdom is this which is given unto him, that even such mighty works are wrought by his hands? 3 Is not this the carpenter, the son of Mary, the brother of James, and Joses, and of Juda, and Simon? and are not his sisters here with us? And they were offended at him. 4 But Jesus, said unto them, A prophet is not without honour, but in his own country, and among his own kin, and in his own house. 5 And he could there do no mighty work, save that he laid his hands upon a few sick folk, and healed them. 6 And he marvelled because of their unbelief. And he went round about the villages, teaching.

really?

Adam and Eve were married in the garden but did not have sex, marriage is made by consent not sex!

Brothers and sisters of Jesus?

They are not the children of Mary!

Is 7:14 a virgin shall conceive and bear a son!
(One son, singular)

James is the son of zebedee, and the other James is the son of Alpheus not Joseph!
Matt 10:2-3

In Hebrew culture any close relative can be called brother or sister, lot was called Abraham’s brother but was his nephew.

Gen 12:5 and Abram took Sarai his wife, and Lot his brother's son..

Gen 13:8 And Abram said unto Lot, Let there be no strife, I pray thee, between me and thee, and between my herdsmen and thy herdsmen; for we are Brothers.

The 12 sons of Jacob are brothers but all are not the children of Leah and all are not the children of Rachel! They had 4 mother’s, These may be brothers but they are simply not the children of One mother and the brothers of Jesus are not the children of Mary!

Jose’s, Simon Salome are children of another Mary!

Mk 15:40 There were also women looking on afar off: among whom was Mary Magdalene, and Mary the mother of James the less and of Joses, and Salome;

Is Mary the mother of James?
If you mean the Blessed Virgin Mary then no. Her sister-in-law, Mary of Clopas, was the wife of Alphaeus (St. Joseph's brother), and mother of Simon, Joseph, and the apostles Judas Thaddeus, and James (the Less, brother of the Lord): Jesus' cousins.

The "sisters" of Jesus refer to women disciples

Salome, or Mary Salome, was the wife of Zebedee, and mother of apostles John (the beloved), and James (the greater).


Regarding Mat. 13:55 and Mk. 6:3, two of the four "brethren" are James and Judas of Alphaeus (cf. Mat. 10:2-3, Lk. 6:15-16, Act. 1:13). The third, Joseph, is identified in Mk. 15:40 as the brother of James of Alphaeus. The fourth, Simon, is identified in Mat. 13:55 and Mk. 6:3 as the brother of Joseph, James, and Judas of Alphaeus. Therefore, all four are were the sons of Alphaeus, not St. Joseph and the Blessed Virgin Mary.

When Jesus was twelve they went up to Jerusalem, the holy family, Joseph, Mary, and Jesus. Where are the brothers and sisters?

Jesus on the cross gives His mother to John, why? Why not James or a brother? Perhaps the law of Moses requires a mother to be given to the next oldest son? Because he was an only Son!
Only begotten of the Father, only begotten of the Mother.

 

[theefaith]

Perpetual Virginity of Mary!

Mary conceived "without any detriment to her virginity, which remained inviolate even after his birth" (apostolic Council of the Lateran, 649) with the jurisdictional authority of Peter and the apostles in holy council! Matt 16:18 18:18 Jn 20:21-23 eph 2:20 bound on earth bound in heaven!

The Bible never says anyone is a biological child of Mary accept for Jesus Christ!

And the Bible says Her child is holy! And Her child is God!

Is 7:14 God provides a sign, a Virgin shall conceive and bear a son! (Singular, one son)

Ezekiel 44:2 “This gate shall remain shut; it shall not be opened, and no one shall enter by it; for the Lord, the God of Israel, has entered by it; therefore it shall remain shut.”

Song of Solomon 4:12 A garden inclosed is my sister, my spouse; a spring shut up, a fountain sealed.

(Mary had become the temple & dwelling place of the Almighty, like the Ark of the Covenant in the Old Testament. Mary was a vessel consecrated to God alone?)

Matt 1:20 But while he thought on these things, behold, the angel of the Lord appeared unto him in a dream, saying, Joseph, thou son of David, fear not to take unto thee Mary thy wife: for that which is conceived in her is of the Holy Ghost.

(The Bible says only the Holy Ghost conceived in Mary)

Matt 1:21 And she shall bring forth a son, and thou shalt call his name Jesus: for he shall save his people from their sins.
(A son singular) (only Jesus is savior)

Lk 1:28 Hail Mary, full of Grace, the Lord is with thee!

Blessed art thou amongst all women, and blessed is the fruit of thy womb.
(The fruit of Her womb is blessed and holy)

Lk 1:31 And, behold, thou shalt conceive in thy womb, and bring forth a son, and shalt call his name Jesus.
(A son, singular)

Lk 1:34 Then said Mary unto the angel, How shall this be, seeing I know not a man?
(This verse imply’s a vow of perpetual virginity, She refuses even the exalted dignity of mother of God and mother of our savior if it means violating Her vow of perpetual virginity)

Lk 1:35 And the angel answered and said unto her, The Holy Ghost shall come upon thee, and the power of the Highest shall overshadow thee: therefore also that holy thing which shall be born of thee shall be called the Son of God.
(Her son is God)

Matt 1:25 He knew her not till she had brought forth her firstborn son: and he called his name Jesus.

2 Samuel 6:23 tells us: Therefore Michal the daughter of Saul had no child UNTIL the day of her death.

Are we to assume that Michal had children after she died?

Until only states that they had no relation up to that point, the Bible does not say they had sex ever, before or after that point!

First born does not imply a second born. An only child is still first born!

The Bible says Joseph a just and therefore a chaste man, it does not say he has gone into Mary anywhere in scripture, 2 Sam 12:24 And David comforted Bathsheba his wife, and went in unto her, and lay with her: and she bare a son, and he called his name Solomon: and the Lord loved him. Never says this about a Joseph, for He was full of fear and reverence for Her immaculate purity and holiness! Especially after hearing from an angel that her child was of the Holy Spirit! Joseph was full of joy to be the guardian of Marr and her purity!


Isa 66:7 Before she travailed, she brought forth; before her pain came, she was delivered of a man child.

8 Who hath heard such a thing? who hath seen such things? Shall the earth be made to bring forth in one day? or shall a nation be born at once? for as soon as Zion travailed, she brought forth her children.

9 Shall I bring to the birth, and not cause to bring forth? saith the Lord: shall I cause to bring forth, and shut the womb? saith thy God.

10 Rejoice ye with Jerusalem, and be glad with her, all ye that love her: rejoice for joy with her, all ye that mourn for her:

11 That ye may suck, and be satisfied with the breasts of her consolations; that ye may milk out, and be delighted with the abundance of her glory.

12 For thus saith the Lord, Behold, I will extend peace to her like a river, and the glory of the Gentiles like a flowing stream: then shall ye suck, ye shall be borne upon her sides, and be dandled upon her knees.

13 As one whom his mother comforteth, so will I comfort you; and ye shall be comforted in Jerusalem

 

[Moriah's Song]

What’s wrong with the rosary, gospel meditation on the life death and resurrection of Christ with biblical prayers!

Where do you find in scripture that we are to pray to Mary or any other saint that is already in heaven? We are to pray directly to God the Father (in heaven) or some believe that praying to Jesus is appropriate although it is to the Father that scripture says Jesus prayed to.

 

[Moriah's Song]

Perpetual Virginity of Mary!

Mary conceived "without any detriment to her virginity, which remained inviolate even after his birth" (apostolic Council of the Lateran, 649)

These are what is called "the traditions of men". They are not scriptural as Mary had a really good sex life because she had children after Jesus was born. And that is in scripture as I posted in the other thread.

Poor Joseph!!! LOL

Mat 1:24-25 ..When Joseph woke from sleep, he did as the angel of the Lord commanded him; he took his wife,,but knew her not "until" she had borne a son; and he called his name Jesus.

 

[Moriah's Song]

Perpetual Virginity of Mary!

Mary conceived "without any detriment to her virginity, which remained inviolate even after his birth" (apostolic Council of the Lateran, 649) with the jurisdictional authority of Peter and the apostles in holy council! Matt 16:18 18:18 Jn 20:21-23 eph 2:20 bound on earth bound in heaven!

The Bible never says anyone is a biological child of Mary accept for Jesus Christ!

And the Bible says Her child is holy! And Her child is God!

Is 7:14 God provides a sign, a Virgin shall conceive and bear a son! (Singular, one son)

Ezekiel 44:2 “This gate shall remain shut; it shall not be opened, and no one shall enter by it; for the Lord, the God of Israel, has entered by it; therefore it shall remain shut.”

Song of Solomon 4:12 A garden inclosed is my sister, my spouse; a spring shut up, a fountain sealed.

(Mary had become the temple & dwelling place of the Almighty, like the Ark of the Covenant in the Old Testament. Mary was a vessel consecrated to God alone?)

Matt 1:20 But while he thought on these things, behold, the angel of the Lord appeared unto him in a dream, saying, Joseph, thou son of David, fear not to take unto thee Mary thy wife: for that which is conceived in her is of the Holy Ghost.

(The Bible says only the Holy Ghost conceived in Mary)

Matt 1:21 And she shall bring forth a son, and thou shalt call his name Jesus: for he shall save his people from their sins.
(A son singular) (only Jesus is savior)

Lk 1:28 Hail Mary, full of Grace, the Lord is with thee!

Blessed art thou amongst all women, and blessed is the fruit of thy womb.
(The fruit of Her womb is blessed and holy)

Lk 1:31 And, behold, thou shalt conceive in thy womb, and bring forth a son, and shalt call his name Jesus.
(A son, singular)

Lk 1:34 Then said Mary unto the angel, How shall this be, seeing I know not a man?
(This verse imply’s a vow of perpetual virginity, She refuses even the exalted dignity of mother of God and mother of our savior if it means violating Her vow of perpetual virginity)

Lk 1:35 And the angel answered and said unto her, The Holy Ghost shall come upon thee, and the power of the Highest shall overshadow thee: therefore also that holy thing which shall be born of thee shall be called the Son of God.
(Her son is God)

Matt 1:25 He knew her not till she had brought forth her firstborn son: and he called his name Jesus.

2 Samuel 6:23 tells us: Therefore Michal the daughter of Saul had no child UNTIL the day of her death.

Are we to assume that Michal had children after she died?

Until only states that they had no relation up to that point, the Bible does not say they had sex ever, before or after that point!

First born does not imply a second born. An only child is still first born!

The Bible says Joseph a just and therefore a chaste man, it does not say he has gone into Mary anywhere in scripture, 2 Sam 12:24 And David comforted Bathsheba his wife, and went in unto her, and lay with her: and she bare a son, and he called his name Solomon: and the Lord loved him. Never says this about a Joseph, for He was full of fear and reverence for Her immaculate purity and holiness! Especially after hearing from an angel that her child was of the Holy Spirit! Joseph was full of joy to be the guardian of Marr and her purity!


Isa 66:7 Before she travailed, she brought forth; before her pain came, she was delivered of a man child.

8 Who hath heard such a thing? who hath seen such things? Shall the earth be made to bring forth in one day? or shall a nation be born at once? for as soon as Zion travailed, she brought forth her children.

9 Shall I bring to the birth, and not cause to bring forth? saith the Lord: shall I cause to bring forth, and shut the womb? saith thy God.

10 Rejoice ye with Jerusalem, and be glad with her, all ye that love her: rejoice for joy with her, all ye that mourn for her:

11 That ye may suck, and be satisfied with the breasts of her consolations; that ye may milk out, and be delighted with the abundance of her glory.

12 For thus saith the Lord, Behold, I will extend peace to her like a river, and the glory of the Gentiles like a flowing stream: then shall ye suck, ye shall be borne upon her sides, and be dandled upon her knees.

13 As one whom his mother comforteth, so will I comfort you; and ye shall be comforted in Jerusalem

WHY IS THIS IN THE "LIES ABOUT GEN 6 SECTION?"

 

[Moriah's Song]

Adam and Eve were married in the garden but did not have sex, ...!

And your proof of that is what verse?