The logic of faith and works

[TonyChanYT]

Faith ≡ faithful works. Faith and works are two sides of the same coin. Here I will give the First-Order Logical proof of that.

Let proposition F = you have faith in his heart.
W = you exhibit (faithful) deeds.

James 2:

17 So also faith by itself, if it does not have works, is dead.

¬W → ¬F
⇒ F → W

Now let's look at the converse.

18 But someone will say, “You have faith and I have works.” Show me your faith apart from your works, and I will show you my faith by my works.

Works show faith. But what kinds of works?

Galatians 2:

16 know that a man is not justified by works of the law, but by faith in Jesus Christ.

Works of the law (without faith) are not good enough. Only faithful works or deeds will do.

Matthew 5:

16 In the same way, let your light shine before others, that they may see your good deeds and glorify your Father in heaven.

My good, faithful works show my faith.
W → F

Altogether, it is saying F ⟷ W.

Because F ≡ W. James 2:

24 You see that a person is justified by works and not by faith alone.

What about saving by faith alone, as Paul expressed?

Ephesians 2:

8 For by grace you have been saved through faith. And this is not your own doing; it is the gift of God, 9 not a result of [faithless] works, so that no one may boast. 10 For we are his workmanship, created in Christ Jesus for good works, which God prepared beforehand, that we should walk in them.

We are saved by grace through faith for good works.

ESV 1 Timothy 4:

16 Keep a close watch on yourself and on the teaching. Persist in this, for by so doing you will save both yourself and your hearers.

Titus 3:

5 he saved us, not because of works done by us in [faithless] righteousness, but according to his own mercy, by the washing of regeneration and renewal of the Holy Spirit

Philippians 2:

12b work out your own salvation with fear and trembling, 13 for it is God who works in you, both to will and to work for his good pleasure.

Right. Works apart from faith (i.e., faithless works) are useless in saving you. However, after you have been saved by faith, you will naturally show faithful deeds because F ⇔ W according to James 2 and Galatians 2.

Basically, faith and faithful works are logically the same things. You can't have one without the other. Your invisible vertical faith will produce observable horizontal works.

See also Can we lose our salvation?.

 

[Randy Kluth]

Right. Works apart from faith (i.e., faithless works) are useless in saving you. However, after you have been saved by faith, you will naturally show faithful deeds because F ⇔ W according to James 2 and Galatians 2.

Basically, faith and faithful works are logically the same things. You can't have one without the other. Your invisible vertical faith will produce observable horizontal works.

I agree. I would only point out that in saying the works of the Law do not save us Paul was not saying that the works of the Law were void of faith, or useless, or incapable of pleasing God for a time. I would argue that Paul's argument is more nuanced than is usually recognized. He was writing in "shorthand."

The works of the Law were a *temporary* expression of faith, trusting in God's word prior to Christ's Salvation. As such, it could bring about a genuine relationship with God along with genuine blessings. It just could not bring about final Christian Salvation, because that was dependent on Christ alone.

Faith under the Law was properly expressed as righteousness waiting for resurrection to be made available by the mercy of God. Paul's argument spoke specifically of "Christian Faith" after it had achieved resurrection and mercy. Paul was not saying that there was no faith expressed under the Law. He was defining "Faith" in a very nuanced way, as "Saving Faith," or Faith that brings resurrection.

As such, Paul condemned works under the Law when they did not properly express anticipation of Christ's mercy, but instead represented a perversion of true faith. Paul condemned works of the Law as expressed in his time as the Jewish rejection of Christianity in exchange for reliance upon the Law as self-justification. That is how he was defining "works of the Law."

This seems difficult for many to understand. But I trust you'll try to understand--I'm not always at my best at communicating this, particularly in an environment in which the difference between Grace and Legalism has been in play for many centuries. The works of the Law did not have to be Legalism, though it had become such among the Jewish People in the time Paul wrote.

The works of the Law had been intended by God to be an expression of faith. Paul was merely arguing that the works of the Law could not achieve resurrection, and that works of the Law apart from Christ was purely an illicit form of self-justification.