Do we have an issue about that? I am not aware of that when you asked the questions. For we are not discussing about morality, but about the cross.Our focus is on the moral principle of punishment. According to the passage in Deuteronomy it is immoral to punish a man's son for the crimes of his father and the principle applies whether the son volunteers or not.Yes. So? Does that say that one could not give his life for another? Do you know what Jesus teach concerning that?
Now, about the passage in Deuteronomy, I don’t think that is about morality. It is about the law that God gave to Israel through Moses.
Well that argument you say there is not coming from me.Salvation is of God, by God, by grace, through faith in God and in Him whom He sent, the Lord and Savior, Jesus Christ, according to the counsel of His will and of course, His nature.
We are on the same page here. And I am aware of the argument that Jesus' vicarious atonement is an act of grace on his part. And we are saved by that particular act of grace on the basis of our faith in that act. I understand that. But I don't think this idea comes from the New Testament, but we inherited this idea from an earlier time in Church history. In order to track this down, we need to remind ourselves whether salvation is predicated on the Father's act of grace or the Son's act of grace?
What do you mean to ask?If it is grace, then how is it satisfaction?It is God who justifies, and that, according to the counsel of His will. It is grace.
I don’t know why you always inject vicarious atonement when I haven’t even mentioned that even once.Vicarious atonement takes place when someone dies "instead of" someone else. This is not what the New Testament means by Christ died FOR us. Rather, the statement indicates that Christ died on our behalf.May I ask, when scriptures says “Christ died for us”, what is your understanding of that?
So, what is your understanding when scriptures says “Christ died for us”?
What do you mean to say that Christ died on our behalf?
Does scriptures teach that or is it your opinion? If it is not opinion, can you point me to the scriptures?The phrase "for our sins" is shorthand for the more complete idea that God sent His Son to be the propitiation for our sins.And when scriptures says “Christ died for our sins”, what is your understanding of that?
Not that propitiation is a matter of appeasement and not justice that such conclusion could be made concerning the cross.That's right, which is why the cross is a matter of appeasement, not of justice. Jesus wasn't satisfying justice at the cross, he was reconciling the world to God at the cross.Propitiation is matter of appeasement, not of justice.
As I said, Christ’s death accomplished a lot of things, and propitiation is only one of them. And as I already mentioned in my previous post, among others, we read in scriptures that speaks of Christ as have offered a sacrifice for sins, which is in reference to the Law.
Tong
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