The Old Man and The New Man

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marks

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Because it give the indication of how ancient the treasure is.
So then, because you have certain conclusion about the meaning of a verse, you paraphrase it as if it said that, though it doesn't.
 

Jay Ross

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So then, because you have certain conclusion about the meaning of a verse, you paraphrase it as if it said that, though it doesn't.

So Mark you are condemning the way I have paraphrased the end of this verse, without any proof except for the reason that you do not believe that the Greek Text does not say what I have said.

The only other time this particular Greek word is used is in 1 John 2:7 and it defines old as being from the beginning of time, i.e. from the time of Adam's creation.

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In the Biblehub study tools it is translated as old, but 1 John 2:7 qualifies just how "old" the Greek word is indicating by stating that the commandment which is "old" we have heard from the beginning, i.e. Adam.

Shalom
 

marks

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So Mark you are condemning the way I have paraphrased the end of this verse, without any proof except for the reason that you do not believe that the Greek Text does not say what I have said.

The only other time this particular Greek word is used is in 1 John 2:7 and it defines old as being from the beginning of time, i.e. from the time of Adam's creation.

In the Biblehub study tools it is translated as old, but 1 John 2:7 qualifies just how "old" the Greek word is indicating by stating that the commandment which is "old" we have heard from the beginning, i.e. Adam.

Shalom
Neither of those examples is "from the beginning of time", which would be entirely different wording.

No, your paraphrases are not supported from the text. At least so far as I can tell. And it's not like I don't know what I'm looking at.

I haven't condemned anything, but I am pointing out that these passages aren't saying what you claim.

Even in this example, why would he have to specify "from the beginning" if that's what the word meant intrinsically?
 
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Jay Ross

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Neither of those examples is "from the beginning of time", which would be entirely different wording.

No, your paraphrases are not supported from the text. At least so far as I can tell. And it's not like I don't know what I'm looking at.

I haven't condemned anything, but I am pointing out that these passages aren't saying what you claim.

Even in this example, why would he have to specify "from the beginning" if that's what the word meant intrinsically?

So be it Mark. I cannot force you to believe anything that you do not want to believe.

Mark, I know that, for emphasis, people will repeat with different words, the same ideas, to confirm what the meaning of what they are saying actually means. In I John 2:7, John is emphasising just how old the commandment is.

You can take it or leave it, because the argument already has a, he said, I said format which can only degenerate spiralling downwards.

Shalom