Was Jesus Guilty Of Unbelief?

[WhiteKnuckle]

Someone had a good idea of why Jesus started with one verse and ended with another,


"at one part of the day the Jews started reading Psalms, then finished with a certain Psalm at a later part." Something like that. Jesus started the Psalm that was about Him, since it was a ritual the Jews did, and finished the Psalm at the same time it was done. Seems like He did this to show the Jews who He was and what that particular scripture was about.

Another interesting note is, When someone is crucified they are suffocating and their lungs filling with fluid. It's impossible for a man dying in such a manor to fill his lungs with enough air to cry out. This seems to be Jesus also showing that man did not kill him, but it was Jesus who laid down His life.

 

[dfj]

Another interesting note is, When someone is crucified they are suffocating and their lungs filling with fluid. It's impossible for a man dying in such a manor to fill his lungs with enough air to cry out. This seems to be Jesus also showing that man did not kill him, but it was Jesus who laid down His life.

Very good point!

 

[dfj]

I owe you an apology I mistook your intention. My bad.

Not a problem, it can certainly happen on a fast paced forum.

 

[tomwebster]

Anyone that takes the time to read the accounts of the crucifixion of Christ alongside Psalm 22 will see that Christ was teaching Psalm 22 from beginning to end. It would happen exactly as it is recorded, right down to the Roman soldiers gambling for Jesus' clothing. The High priest even spoke the words when he was against what he was saying; for God brought all the detail of the crucifixion to pass exactly as He stated in this prophecy. He began with verse one and continued to the end, "He hath done this" is “It is finished.”

 

[KingJ]

I disagree :) 100%

Maybe Jesus did actually think that God had literally forsaken Him. We know that Jesus was resurrected and that God hence did not truly forsake Him....but at that moment in time Jesus felt completely ''forsaken''.

If we attempt to put ourselves in Jesus's shoes...you have stayed with God your entire ''life'' and now He totally withdraws Himself from you. Saying that Jesus is God and that for Jesus to say that would cause us to lose our faith is silly!

Jesus is NOT God. The bible clearly says Jesus is the son of God. He is one with God in that he submits 100% to God's will (but never-the-less let thy will be done).

Irrespective of the different translations, if Jesus clearly said ''forsaken'' there is still NO issue!

Jesus is God? Then howcome Jesus doesnt know the date He is coming to fetch us?

 

[tomwebster]

I disagree :) 100%

Maybe Jesus did actually think that God had literally forsaken Him. We know that Jesus was resurrected and that God hence did not truly forsake Him....but at that moment in time Jesus felt completely ''forsaken''.

If we attempt to put ourselves in Jesus's shoes...you have stayed with God your entire ''life'' and now He totally withdraws Himself from you. Saying that Jesus is God and that for Jesus to say that would cause us to lose our faith is silly!

Jesus is NOT God. The bible clearly says Jesus is the son of God. He is one with God in that he submits 100% to God's will (but never-the-less let thy will be done).

Irrespective of the different translations, if Jesus clearly said ''forsaken'' there is still NO issue!

Jesus is God? Then howcome Jesus doesnt know the date He is coming to fetch us?

Read the forum, all those topics have been covered many times.

 

[veteran]

The unbelieving Jews among the scribes and Pharisees couldn't recognize that Jesus of Nazareth is God, The Christ, so they had no clue of why He was quoting David from Psalms 22. Likewise, their offspring today cannot recognize why Jesus on the cross was quoting Psalms 22 either. There was no better quote to use in order to help those unbelievers among Judah to grasp Who they had rejected and crucified. The Psalms 22 quote was especially a lesson for them then, as it still is for their unbelieving offspring today.

 

[Job one]

Perhaps all might give serious reflection upon Christ's plea unto His Father on not only this excruciating event as He plead in agony upon the cross, but also the great event in the garden as He made a similar plea as he initiated the atonement.

There is no mistranslation in the two scriptures in Matthew or mark on this point."

Christ clearly identified himself as "The Son of God".

He clearly stated that He "was sent" to fulfill the will of His Father.

He clearly stated that His Father "was greater then He."

God the Father has in the scriptures clearly given His testimony and witness of His Son.

Does it bother you to understand that God the Father could not have saved us?

Why is it that there is only ONE name under heaven whereby we may be saved?

Why was it necessary for the Father to forsake or withdraw His spirit from His only begotten Son as He suffered upon the cross in agony?

Why was it that He (Christ) Had to tread this "wine press alone"?

Why is it that we can come unto the Father ONLY through our advocate with the Father, even Jesus Christ?

It is simply stated that this was the Father's plan in the very beginning.

His works and plans are known to Him and they never fail.

He knows that we all, no matter how close we might come to perfection, would fall short of perfection.

Therefore this plan to reconcile us to God was clearly set forth in the very beginning. When I say "beginning", it means just that.

Have we forgotten that according to scripture, that God the Father understood this clearly and "Foreordained His Son, Jesus Christ to that very mission, even "before the foundations of the earth were laid"?

Since this was the very plan from the very beginning, it is obvious that there is no other way or plan whereby we may be saved. The Father's plan is unchanging and undeviating. There is simply put, no other way to salvation or resurrection for anyone.

As I understand it, it must have been very painful for the Father to withdraw His Spirit from His most worthy and faithful Son in that time of agony. But it was absolutely necessary that it be done to fulfill the divine decree that "there is no other name under heaven whereby we may be saved".

Only when we fully appreciate and understand this, can we fully realize our extreme debt of gratitude and requirement of submission of our will and render obedience unto God,s will.

 

[tomwebster]

Perhaps all might give serious reflection upon Christ's plea unto His Father on not only this excruciating event as He plead in agony upon the cross,...of our will and render obedience unto God,s will.

"Heb 13:5 Let your conversation be without covetousness; and be content with such things as ye have: for he hath said, I will never leave thee, nor forsake thee."

OR " ...I will never leave thee, nor forsake thee with the exception of …”

 

[Job one]

Perhaps all might give serious reflection upon Christ's plea unto His Father on not only this excruciating event as He plead in agony upon the cross, but also the great event in the garden as He made a similar plea as he initiated the atonement.

There is no mistranslation in the two scriptures in Matthew or mark on this point."

Christ clearly identified himself as "The Son of God".

He clearly stated that He "was sent" to fulfill the will of His Father.

He clearly stated that His Father "was greater then He."

God the Father has in the scriptures clearly given His testimony and witness of His Son.

Does it bother you to understand that God the Father could not have saved us?

Why is it that there is only ONE name under heaven whereby we may be saved?

Why was it necessary for the Father to forsake or withdraw His spirit from His only begotten Son as He suffered upon the cross in agony?

Why was it that He (Christ) Had to tread this "wine press alone"?

Why is it that we can come unto the Father ONLY through our advocate with the Father, even Jesus Christ?

It is simply stated that this was the Father's plan in the very beginning.

His works and plans are known to Him and they never fail.

He knows that we all, no matter how close we might come to perfection, would fall short of perfection.

Therefore this plan to reconcile us to God was clearly set forth in the very beginning. When I say "beginning", it means just that.

Have we forgotten that according to scripture, that God the Father understood this clearly and "Foreordained His Son, Jesus Christ to that very mission, even "before the foundations of the earth were laid"?

Since this was the very plan from the very beginning, it is obvious that there is no other way or plan whereby we may be saved. The Father's plan is unchanging and undeviating. There is simply put, no other way to salvation or resurrection for anyone.

As I understand it, it must have been very painful for the Father to withdraw His Spirit from His most worthy and faithful Son in that time of agony. But it was absolutely necessary that it be done to fulfill the divine decree that "there is no other name under heaven whereby we may be saved".

Only when we fully appreciate and understand this, can we fully realize our extreme debt of gratitude and requirement of submission of our will and render obedience unto God,s will.

Tom it appears that you really missed the focus of the point I was making.

You might reread Hebrews 13:5 and observe to whom Paul was speaking.

Also read Joshua 1:5 and 1 Kings 6:13 and ob serve to whom the verses are speaking.

 

[tomwebster]

Tom it appears that you really missed the focus of the point I was making.

You might reread Hebrews 13:5 and observe to whom Paul was speaking.

Also read Joshua 1:5 and 1 Kings 6:13 and ob serve to whom the verses are speaking.

I know very well to who God is speakingbto in Hebrews 13:5, Joshua 1:5 and 1 Kings 6:13 but I am willing to bet you don't.

 

[Duckybill]

I appreciate the comment but it is just speculation as Scripture neither bears out this connection nor does it support the transliteration of the two verses.

And of course as we have seen, Dave has his own scriptures that seem to have little resemblance to our English translations.

 

[KingJ]

Read the forum, all those topics have been covered many times.

my post is answering your question......wether the forum has these points in or not....is irrelevant.......

 

[Amazing Grace]

Good on you Job One. I think you have made some very good points.

 

[Duckybill]

[font="Verdana]
[b][font="Verdana]I have a question, if most here believe that Jesus is God, how on earth can you live with the errant translation of Matt 27:46, Mark 15:34??[/font][/b][/font][/color][/size][size="3"]

Jesus guilty of unbelief? Have you no shame DJ? Do you profess to be Christian?