What I ask for where did the Lord command the gentiles anything?
For those who love and serve Him Exo20:6 Isa56:6 1 John5:3 made for mankind Mark2:27-28
The law is a totality.
Jas 2:10 For whosoever shall keep the whole law, and yet offend in one point, he is guilty of all. So when the law was changed in one point it was changed in all.
The whole law in this context is the Ten Commandments why the
only commandments being quoted and contrasted is the Ten Commandments- its the only law under the mercy seat of Christ which His blood atones for, its the only law that God wrote and spoke Exo31:18 and no more were added Deut 5:22. God does not need man to complete His own laws- they are perfect for converting the soul Psa19:7
2 Chron 33:and I will not again remove the foot of Israel from the land which I have appointed for your fathers—only if they are careful to
do all that I (GOD) have commanded them, according to the whole law (separate from the next word) and the statutes and
the ordinances by the hand of Moses.”
God wrote the Ten Commandments the whole law of God Exo20:6 Deut 4:13 Moses wrote everything else in a book including the handwriting or ordinance as this verse clearly says that was beside the ark there as a witness against thee the context of Col2:14-17
Deut 31:24 So it was,
when Moses had completed writing the words of this law in a book, when they were finished, 25 that Moses commanded the Levites, who bore the ark of the covenant of the Lord, saying: 26 “Take this Book of the Law
, and put it beside the ark of the covenant of the Lord your God, that it may be there
as a witness against you
Jesus changed the law of adultery from committing the actual deed to even thinking about it. He changed "Do not Kill" to being angry without a cause. Therefore, more than just the law of the priesthood was changed.
Jesus didn't change He magnified as it was prophesized
Isa 42: 21 The Lord is well pleased for his righteousness' sake;
he will magnify the law, and make it honourable.
Jesus is not teaching its okay to commit thou shalt not commit adultery as long as we do not have lust in our heart that's not even possible- He plainly taught not to break or teach anyone else to break the least of these commandments Mat5:19
Jer 31:31-33
Behold, the days come, saith the Lord, that I will make a new covenant with the house of Israel, and with the house of Judah: Not according to the covenant that I made with their fathers in the day that I took them by the hand to bring them out of the land of Egypt; which my covenant they brake, although I was an husband unto them, saith the Lord: But this shall be the covenant that I will make with the house of Israel; After those days, saith the Lord, I will put my law in their inward parts, and write it in their hearts; and will be their God, and they shall be my people.
Thats right the laws in the NC is known to Jeremiah, and each one of the Ten Commandments including the Sabbath is repeated in Jeremiah because that what was broken and God restored His laws but written in a better location the hearts and minds if we don;t refuse them Rom8:7-8
Paul said the ordinances were nailed to the cross and the new law of love is kept by walking in the Spirit.
Again, please quote by Scripture what Paul is quoting who wrote the ordinances? The Bible tells us and it was not God.
of course not...the sabbath is entering into his rest by faith
This is not stated anywhere in Scripture it would literally go against what God said He would not alter His words Psa89:23 not a jot or tittle Mat5:18 and editing His commandments that He wrote
Sure, it's quoting psalm 95 where the people did not hear his voice and enter into his rest (even though the works were finished before the foundation of the world) Heb 3 and 4 tell us that we do not enter into the rest by legalistically keeping any single day, as that would require adhering to the entire law(James 2-10) We enter into the sabbath rest by faith as Heb 4:2 tells us.
There is more than one rest in Scripture. There are two different rest being spoken of in Heb 4 and we see this plainly in the Greek definitions.
The rest being referred to in days of Joshua was
the land full of milk and honey and they were given this land on the condition if they love God with all their heart, mind and soul and feared God and kept His commandments? Did that happen? What reason did God give that they could not enter?
Jos 1:13 Remember the word which Moses the servant of the Lord commanded you, saying, The Lord your God hath
given you rest, and hath given you this land.
This is God speaking why they could not enter:
Eze 20:15 So I also raised My hand in an oath to them in the wilderness,
that I would not bring them into the land which I had given them, ‘flowing with milk and honey,’ the glory of all lands, 16
because they despised My judgments and did not walk in My statutes,
but profaned My Sabbaths; for their heart went after their idols.
And why in the NT we are told plainly not to follow in the same example of disobeyed to enter into our promise land
Heb 4:11 Let us therefore be diligent to enter that rest
, lest anyone fall
according to the same example of disobedience.
No one in Christ rest is in rebellion to His commandments. Hebrews was written 40 years after the death of Christ- Christ ratified His covenant at the Cross- no one can change it, not Paul, not anyone- Christ has all authority why Paul taught everything has to be according to Christ. Jesus is LORD of the Sabbath why are we trying to tear down what He is LORD of instead of keeping it holy as He asked Exo20:8-11 if we love and serve Him Exo20:6 Isa56:6 Rev14:12 Rev22:14
In Psalms 95 what rebellion in the wilderness is being quoted that Paul is also quoting in Heb 3 and Heb 4. The Bible actually tells us verbatim Eze 20:13
I am OK agreeing to disagree- this will all get sorted out soon enough..
God bless you as you seek diligently the Truth of God's Word.
