Who is Christ instructing?

[veteran]

Again, just like Zechariah 14:4, the Hebrew of Isaiah 13:9 says A day (יום) of the lord, not THE day (היום) of the lord. - http://www.christianityboard.com/topic/17608-chapter-14/#entry188611

Matt 23:23-24
23 Woe unto you, scribes and Pharisees, hypocrites! for ye pay tithe of mint and anise and cummin, and have omitted the weightier matters of the law, judgment, mercy, and faith: these ought ye to have done, and not to leave the other undone.
24 Ye blind guides, which strain at a gnat, and swallow a camel.
(KJV)

That definitely applies to you then.

In the OT phrase "the day of the LORD", the Hebrew for 'the' is 'yowm' which means 'to be hot', a day (as the warm hours) whether literal (from sunrise to sunset, or from one sunset to the next), or figurative (a space of time defined by an associated term) - (Strong's no. 3117). It is put for a certain 'day' per the Hebrew context, given twice for emphasis in the phrase. So one can put 'the' in front of it like the KJV translators did, or even say 'that day', 'this day', or whatever.

But what's really ignorant is with trying to fixate 'a' in front it as IF that gives it some specialized meaning OUTSIDE the subject context it is given in! And doing that... IS straining at a gnat just like the blind Pharisees did.

 

[HeRoseFromTheDead]

In the OT phrase "the day of the LORD", the Hebrew for 'the' is 'yowm' which means 'to be hot', a day (as the warm hours) whether literal (from sunrise to sunset, or from one sunset to the next), or figurative (a space of time defined by an associated term) - (Strong's no. 3117). It is put for a certain 'day' per the Hebrew context, given twice for emphasis in the phrase. So one can put 'the' in front of it like the KJV translators did, or even say 'that day', 'this day', or whatever.

But what's really ignorant is with trying to fixate 'a' in front it as IF that gives it some specialized meaning OUTSIDE the subject context it is given in! And doing that... IS straining at a gnat just like the blind Pharisees did.

You really are clueless. In language a definite article is exactly what gives specificity to its related noun, whereas an indefinite article doesn't.

Another error you make is that the Hebrew for THE isn't 'yom' (יום); it's 'he' (ה).