Who's Winning: Adam Or Christ?

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ahigherway

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Jun 17, 2010
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Hi all!

Adam's disobedience led to condemnation of ALL mankind. He was 100 percent "successful" in polluting mankind.

What about Christ? Will He "get back" the 100 percent that Adam lost? Will He be as successful in saving mankind? Or is He falling short?


Blessings,
Brian
 

Robbie

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Jan 4, 2011
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Huntington Beeach
His parts finished... if everyone rejected Him He would still have all the glory He deserves... so it's now up to our Free will...

People have trouble understanding the principle of predestination and freewill like it's some complicated principle and I don't understand why... since we practice it every day and Jesus even told us what it relates to... roads or maybe He said paths... but same principle...

Every day we get in our cars and we take off on roads that are predestined to where they end... if I head west on Beach Blvd I will end up at the beach... if I head east on Beach Blvd I end up at the mountains... my Free will is whether I choose to drive East or West...

Jesus is the Road that Leads to Salvation... it's predestined... we can use our free will to drive down that road or take one of the many other roads that lead to destruction...

Jesus wants everyone to take His predestined way all the way to salvation... but it's up to us whether we choose to drive own that road...

So whether we choose destruction or salvation has no relevance to whether Jesus did His job... Jesus job was to make the Way... and the Way is made most def... now it's up to us whether we choose to take His FREEWAY or not...

HIS WAY IS LIFE...
 

Foreigner

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Apr 14, 2010
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Ahigherway, I would put it a little differently:

Adam was 100% successful in staining all mankind with sin..

Jesus was 100% successful in paying the penalty for the sin Adam put on all mankind.

Man alone is responsible for deciding whether to accept Jesus and do away with Adam's curse, or accepting Adam's curse and doing away with the price Christ has paid.
 

TexUs

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Nov 18, 2010
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Hi all!

Adam's disobedience led to condemnation of ALL mankind. He was 100 percent "successful" in polluting mankind.

What about Christ? Will He "get back" the 100 percent that Adam lost? Will He be as successful in saving mankind? Or is He falling short?


Blessings,
Brian
IMO, let the Bible answer this. Read the following from Romans 5.
In a summarized nutshell, Christ's ability to save outweighs Adam's ability to destroy.

[sup]15[/sup]But the free gift is not like the trespass. For if many died through one man’s trespass, much more have the grace of God and the free gift by the grace of that one man Jesus Christ abounded for[sup](AB)[/sup] many. [sup]16[/sup]And the free gift is not like the result of that one man’s sin. For[sup](AC)[/sup] the judgment following one trespass brought condemnation, but the free gift following many trespasses brought[sup](AD)[/sup] justification. [sup]17[/sup]For if, because of one man’s trespass, death reigned through that one man, much more will those who receive the abundance of grace and the free gift of righteousness[sup](AE)[/sup] reign in life through the one man Jesus Christ.

[sup]18[/sup]Therefore, as one trespass[sup][e][/sup] led to condemnation for all men, so one act of righteousness[sup][f][/sup] leads to justification and life for[sup](AF)[/sup] all men. [sup]19[/sup]For as by the one man’s[sup](AG)[/sup] disobedience the many were made sinners, so by the one man’s[sup](AH)[/sup] obedience the many will be made righteous. [sup]20[/sup]Now[sup](AI)[/sup] the law came in to increase the trespass, but where sin increased,[sup](AJ)[/sup] grace abounded all the more, [sup]21[/sup]so that,[sup](AK)[/sup] as sin reigned in death,[sup](AL)[/sup] grace also might reign through righteousness leading to eternal life through Jesus Christ our Lord.




 

ahigherway

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Jun 17, 2010
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Ahigherway, I would put it a little differently:

Adam was 100% successful in staining all mankind with sin..

Jesus was 100% successful in paying the penalty for the sin Adam put on all mankind.

Man alone is responsible for deciding whether to accept Jesus and do away with Adam's curse, or accepting Adam's curse and doing away with the price Christ has paid.

Are you saying then, that man is "forced" to be stained, but not "forced" to have his penalty taken away? That doesn't sound right.. :unsure:

Blessings,
Brian

IMO, let the Bible answer this. Read the following from Romans 5.
In a summarized nutshell, Christ's ability to save outweighs Adam's ability to destroy.

[sup]15[/sup]But the free gift is not like the trespass. For if many died through one man’s trespass, much more have the grace of God and the free gift by the grace of that one man Jesus Christ abounded for[sup](AB)[/sup] many. [sup]16[/sup]And the free gift is not like the result of that one man’s sin. For[sup](AC)[/sup] the judgment following one trespass brought condemnation, but the free gift following many trespasses brought[sup](AD)[/sup] justification. [sup]17[/sup]For if, because of one man’s trespass, death reigned through that one man, much more will those who receive the abundance of grace and the free gift of righteousness[sup](AE)[/sup] reign in life through the one man Jesus Christ.

[sup]18[/sup]Therefore, as one trespass[sup][e][/sup] led to condemnation for all men, so one act of righteousness[sup][f][/sup] leads to justification and life for[sup](AF)[/sup] all men. [sup]19[/sup]For as by the one man’s[sup](AG)[/sup] disobedience the many were made sinners, so by the one man’s[sup](AH)[/sup] obedience the many will be made righteous. [sup]20[/sup]Now[sup](AI)[/sup] the law came in to increase the trespass, but where sin increased,[sup](AJ)[/sup] grace abounded all the more, [sup]21[/sup]so that,[sup](AK)[/sup] as sin reigned in death,[sup](AL)[/sup] grace also might reign through righteousness leading to eternal life through Jesus Christ our Lord.

Hi TexUs,

Yes, Romans 5 is exactly where I'm referring to. In fact, your verse 16b says this: "For[sup](AC)[/sup] the judgment following one trespass brought condemnation, but the free gift following many trespasses brought[sup](AD)[/sup] justification."

This tells me that Christ "undid" what Adam did.

Now we are told that the "effect" of Adam's disobedience has spread to all men.
Why then is the "effect" of Christ's obedience not spread to all men as well?
This seems the only logical conclusion. Adam "polluted" all, Christ "cleaned" all.

See what I mean?

Blessings,
Brian
 

TexUs

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Nov 18, 2010
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Yes, Romans 5 is exactly where I'm referring to. In fact, your verse 16b says this: "For[sup](AC)[/sup] the judgment following one trespass brought condemnation, but the free gift following many trespasses brought[sup](AD)[/sup] justification."

This tells me that Christ "undid" what Adam did.
Yes. His saving grace has been extended to those who accept Him.
His general grace has been extended to this World.

Until such a time as Christ is revealed plainly to the world as He is, when he reconciles and renews the entire world and reverses the curse of sin forever.

Now we are told that the "effect" of Adam's disobedience has spread to all men.
Why then is the "effect" of Christ's obedience not spread to all men as well?
This seems the only logical conclusion. Adam "polluted" all, Christ "cleaned" all.
You're asking the question basically, why doesn't God save all? That's really a question only he could answer, but I hope I can shed some light on this.
When you die and go to the present heaven, your mind is removed from being polluted with sin as it is, so to speak. You will have direct access with God, your mind will be much clearer, you can understand his plan much better. Let's look at what the people in the present heaven will be saying in Revelation 6:

9 When he opened the fifth seal, I saw under the altar the souls of those who had been slain for the word of God and for the witness they had borne.10 They cried out with a loud voice, “O Sovereign Lord, holy and true, how long before you will judge and avenge our blood on those who dwell on the earth?” 11 Then they were each given a white robe and told to rest a little longer, until the number of their fellow servants [3] and their brothers [4]should be complete, who were to be killed as they themselves had been.


[font="Georgia][size="3"]Notice that these people, who can think clearly and see God's will better than we, understand that his judgement and wrath on evil are good and necessary for his plan. So for whatever reason God has not opted to save everyone, it's a good and valid reason that's understood by those in Heaven.[/size][/font]
[font="Georgia][size="3"]
[/size][/font]
[font="Georgia]I suspect this has something to do with his Glory. His Glory and Grace is increased all the more through the saving of a few in the midst of much sin heading to death.[/font]
[font="Georgia]
[/font]
[font="Georgia]Let's be clear: God COULD save everyone if he wanted to. I'm not sure if that's your reasoning, but nothing stops him from doing so. The question is simply, why isn't it in his will to save everybody? I just don't think we have an answer to that. All I can know is see that the people in Heaven understand this clearly and plainly, they groan and long for the judgement on sin: they aren't asking "why", but "when".[/font]
 

ahigherway

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Jun 17, 2010
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Yes. His saving grace has been extended to those who accept Him.
His general grace has been extended to this World.

Until such a time as Christ is revealed plainly to the world as He is, when he reconciles and renews the entire world and reverses the curse of sin forever.


You're asking the question basically, why doesn't God save all? That's really a question only he could answer, but I hope I can shed some light on this.
When you die and go to the present heaven, your mind is removed from being polluted with sin as it is, so to speak. You will have direct access with God, your mind will be much clearer, you can understand his plan much better. Let's look at what the people in the present heaven will be saying in Revelation 6:

[font="Georgia][font="Verdana][size="2"]9 [/size][/font]When he opened the fifth seal, I saw under the altar the souls of those who had been slain for the word of God and for the witness they had borne.[font="Verdana][size="2"]10 [/size][/font]They cried out with a loud voice, “O Sovereign Lord, holy and true, how long before you will judge and avenge our blood on those who dwell on the earth?” [font="Verdana][size="2"]11 [/size][/font]Then they were each given a white robe and told to rest a little longer, until the number of their fellow servants[font="Verdana][size="2"] [3][/size][/font] and their brothers[font="Verdana][size="2"] [4][/size][/font]should be complete, who were to be killed as they themselves had been.[/font]
[font="Georgia]
[/font]
[font="Georgia][size="3"]Notice that these people, who can think clearly and see God's will better than we, understand that his judgement and wrath on evil are good and necessary for his plan. So for whatever reason God has not opted to save everyone, it's a good and valid reason that's understood by those in Heaven.[/size][/font]
[font="Georgia] [/font]
[font="Georgia][size="2"]I suspect this has something to do with his Glory. His Glory and Grace is increased all the more through the saving of a few in the midst of much sin heading to death.[/size][/font]
[font="Georgia] [/font]
[font="Georgia][size="2"]Let's be clear: God COULD save everyone if he wanted to. I'm not sure if that's your reasoning, but nothing stops him from doing so. The question is simply, why isn't it in his will to save everybody? I just don't think we have an answer to that. All I can know is see that the people in Heaven understand this clearly and plainly, they groan and long for the judgement on sin: they aren't asking "why", but "when".[/size][/font]

Thank you for the elaboration, TexUs.
I guess my question isn't so much, whether God will save all. But rather, isn't that who Christ was/is?

Christ is called the "last Adam." This tells me that His "office" was as powerful as that of Adam. If Adam "polluted" all, why didn't Christ "purify" all?
Is Christ "limited" by man's choices? If so, why doesn't man also "choose" Adam?


Blessings,
brian
 

bud02

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Aug 14, 2010
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His parts finished... if everyone rejected Him He would still have all the glory He deserves... so it's now up to our Free will...

People have trouble understanding the principle of predestination and freewill like it's some complicated principle and I don't understand why... since we practice it every day and Jesus even told us what it relates to... roads or maybe He said paths... but same principle...

Every day we get in our cars and we take off on roads that are predestined to where they end... if I head west on Beach Blvd I will end up at the beach... if I head east on Beach Blvd I end up at the mountains... my Free will is whether I choose to drive East or West...

Jesus is the Road that Leads to Salvation... it's predestined... we can use our free will to drive down that road or take one of the many other roads that lead to destruction...

Jesus wants everyone to take His predestined way all the way to salvation... but it's up to us whether we choose to drive own that road...

So whether we choose destruction or salvation has no relevance to whether Jesus did His job... Jesus job was to make the Way... and the Way is made most def... now it's up to us whether we choose to take His FREEWAY or not...

HIS WAY IS LIFE...

This is a C/P of a post I made back in Oct.

I can't help but be reminded of a verse in Isaiah 55:11. It comes to mind in cases where people speak of predestination, the elect such as Paul, or topics such as this.
My personal vision is Gods word is like a train traveling threw the earth and time, its unstoppable unyielding to men and their plans, you can ether chose to know it or oppose it.
Many today try to stop it or cause it to travel a different rout but the track is laid and the engine set in motion. God has been influencing kings and princes from the beginning.


Rom 9:17 Exodus 9:16 For the Scripture says to the Pharaoh, “For this very purpose I have raised you up, that I may show My power in you, and that My name may be declared in all the earth.”


Isaiah 55
[sup]11[/sup] So shall My word be that goes forth from My mouth;
It shall not return to Me void,
But it shall accomplish what I please,
And it shall prosper in the thing for which I sent it.


With our free will we can choose to play on the tracks, yield to the conductors "Abraham, Moses the Prophets ect " or ignore the drone of the engine approaching. .
I would suggest that you nether get in the way or a-temp in your own strength to aid it in its predestine course.
But instead marvel at the divine wisdom and purpose of God. We all have a free ticket to ride the train of predestination, its your choice to use it.
 

TexUs

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Nov 18, 2010
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We all have a free ticket to ride the train of predestination, its your choice to use it.
That's the silliest thing I've heard so far today.
If it's OUR CHOICE to use it, then it's not GOD'S PREDESTINATION. The ideas collide. Unless you wish to clarify this with "God's predetermination that you will use the ticket".

I guess my question isn't so much, whether God will save all. But rather, isn't that who Christ was/is?

Christ is called the "last Adam." This tells me that His "office" was as powerful as that of Adam. If Adam "polluted" all, why didn't Christ "purify" all?
Is Christ "limited" by man's choices? If so, why doesn't man also "choose" Adam?
No, Christ and God won't save all. The intent of Christ was to save those that God ordained to save. You can believe everyone has a free choice or you can believe God predestines the entire thing, it doesn't matter, but Christ was just doing the will of the Father. They are one. What the Father wills is what Christ accomplished. What Christ accomplished is what the Father wills. God isn't desiring NOT to save all and Christ desiring TO save all... Doesn't work that way. They are unified. Either they both save all or they both don't save all. The latter is true and God's will.

Again, WHY he doesn't opt to save all, we don't know. He could indeed save us apart from our choice, through Christ. If he wanted to save us all, then Christ would have covered all and not be dependent upon our choice: but this simply wasn't the case. Weather free will or predetermined in theory, I think both sides should agree that God/Christ isn't saving ALL individuals. They could have, but didn't. The why, is again, unknown to us.


As to your second question, Christ DID purify it all. It's just delayed. Why did God chose to delay it? Again, that's unknowable.
Part of purification is removal of the bad. Purifying gold means you strip out the bad to make the gold pure. Purifying Creation means he will remove the curse of sin. This just hasn't happened yet, but Christ's work has already laid the foundation and ground work for it to happen.



Your next question, in my opinion, looks like you're questioning free will (as you should be): "Is Christ "limited" by man's choices? If so, why doesn't man also "choose" Adam?"
If we can choose good, why can we not choose bad, right? In a free will situation, we'd be able to. But this is not the case. We know, and you see this hence your question, we are all bad. We are all depraved. We are all sinful. We all inherit Adam's curse. Thus, we don't have free will in the matter.
Just apply that to the good. We don't have free will in the good, either. Us Christians can only see the good because God has opted to show us the good in light of the bad we have been cursed with.
 

ahigherway

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Jun 17, 2010
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That's the silliest thing I've heard so far today.
If it's OUR CHOICE to use it, then it's not GOD'S PREDESTINATION. The ideas collide. Unless you wish to clarify this with "God's predetermination that you will use the ticket".


No, Christ and God won't save all. The intent of Christ was to save those that God ordained to save. You can believe everyone has a free choice or you can believe God predestines the entire thing, it doesn't matter, but Christ was just doing the will of the Father. They are one. What the Father wills is what Christ accomplished. What Christ accomplished is what the Father wills. God isn't desiring NOT to save all and Christ desiring TO save all... Doesn't work that way. They are unified. Either they both save all or they both don't save all. The latter is true and God's will.

Again, WHY he doesn't opt to save all, we don't know. He could indeed save us apart from our choice, through Christ. If he wanted to save us all, then Christ would have covered all and not be dependent upon our choice: but this simply wasn't the case. Weather free will or predetermined in theory, I think both sides should agree that God/Christ isn't saving ALL individuals. They could have, but didn't. The why, is again, unknown to us.


As to your second question, Christ DID purify it all. It's just delayed. Why did God chose to delay it? Again, that's unknowable.
Part of purification is removal of the bad. Purifying gold means you strip out the bad to make the gold pure. Purifying Creation means he will remove the curse of sin. This just hasn't happened yet, but Christ's work has already laid the foundation and ground work for it to happen.



Your next question, in my opinion, looks like you're questioning free will (as you should be): "Is Christ "limited" by man's choices? If so, why doesn't man also "choose" Adam?"
If we can choose good, why can we not choose bad, right? In a free will situation, we'd be able to. But this is not the case. We know, and you see this hence your question, we are all bad. We are all depraved. We are all sinful. We all inherit Adam's curse. Thus, we don't have free will in the matter.
Just apply that to the good. We don't have free will in the good, either. Us Christians can only see the good because God has opted to show us the good in light of the bad we have been cursed with.

Does it bring glory to God for Him to "lose" His own creatures? How can His "lost" creatures praise Him?
It's against all understanding and common sense.

Jesus declared that He came "not to condemn the world, but that the world through Him might be saved." John 3
He also came to take away the sin (not sins) of the world.
Did He succeed or fail?

Blessings,
brian
 

TexUs

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Nov 18, 2010
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Does it bring glory to God for Him to "lose" His own creatures? How can His "lost" creatures praise Him?
His "lost creatures" I'm assuming are those heading for hell? I'm not sure what you mean by "lost creatures". He doesn't lose them. He sends them to hell for punishment.


Jesus declared that He came "not to condemn the world, but that the world through Him might be saved." John 3
He also came to take away the sin (not sins) of the world.
Did He succeed or fail?
He succeeded. It's just not fully reconciled yet.

For the same reason Abraham was saved because of faith in the work that was to come, we have been saved by the work that was done, and creation will be saved by the work that was done.
 

ahigherway

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Jun 17, 2010
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His "lost creatures" I'm assuming are those heading for hell? I'm not sure what you mean by "lost creatures". He doesn't lose them. He sends them to hell for punishment.



He succeeded. It's just not fully reconciled yet.

For the same reason Abraham was saved because of faith in the work that was to come, we have been saved by the work that was done, and creation will be saved by the work that was done.

I see from your posts that we see things quite similarily, actually!
It may be that God will send some to a place of "punishment," but I cannot see why He would punish man for not believing, when unbelief is all that the natural man is capable of!

It also just occurred to me, that "hell" is the experience of not believing in God. ("Those who don't believe are condemned already...") Man is blind. That condition is truly a "hell" of "darkness" if God doesn't shine His Light of faith on him!!

Blessings,
brian
 

TexUs

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Nov 18, 2010
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It may be that God will send some to a place of "punishment," but I cannot see why He would punish man for not believing, when unbelief is all that the natural man is capable of!
Because we (Adam) chose unbelief. He is righteous to punish it.

That condition is truly a "hell" of "darkness" if God doesn't shine His Light of faith on him!!
Meh, yes and no.
The world is living under a state of general grace right now, it's far better to live in a state of general grace than it is to live in a place with grace entirely removed.
 

ahigherway

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Jun 17, 2010
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Because we (Adam) chose unbelief. He is righteous to punish it.


Meh, yes and no.
The world is living under a state of general grace right now, it's far better to live in a state of general grace than it is to live in a place with grace entirely removed.

I notice you equate Adam with yourself.

Shouldn't we be equating ourselves with Christ?

Why would God punish people for what Adam did? How is that "just?"


Blessings,
brian
 

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Hi all!

Adam's disobedience led to condemnation of ALL mankind. He was 100 percent "successful" in polluting mankind.

What about Christ? Will He "get back" the 100 percent that Adam lost? Will He be as successful in saving mankind? Or is He falling short?


Blessings,
Brian

Read the parable of the sower. Not all the seeds that were sown were harvested as a good crop. In fact, the majority were not.

The spiritual principle of remnants is in play here.
Whatever happens in the history of man, God always preserves a remnant for Himself.

Always.

The focus is GOD, not mankind.

If you frame your question in terms of the conceited self-importance of mankind you will never find a satisfying answer.
On the other hand, if you want to really find out what God is up to or what His attitude is you'll discover the importance of His plan. To God's glory, man is part of the plan. Considered in the greater sweep of time, history and the universe, however, we inhabit a very small part of it.

Will Christ 'get back' 100%? I tell you this that when Our Lord goes out and finds ONE (1), there is rejoicing in heaven.

Pray that the one who is found is YOU.
 

TexUs

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Nov 18, 2010
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I notice you equate Adam with yourself.

Shouldn't we be equating ourselves with Christ?

Why would God punish people for what Adam did? How is that "just?"
I'm beginning to think you're missing the point of what I'm saying in regards to what I said about Adam.

God isn't punishing us for Adam's sin, but we do inherit that sinful nature.
 

bud02

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I had some thoughts about Adams sin and then started linking that to the law, this is what I came to.

http://www.christian...__fromsearch__1

I want to discus Romans Ch 5 verse 12-21. Agree or disagree. Did men inherent a sin, or the result of sin, death when Adam ate of the tree.
There are reasons why it is important to make this distinction and as always properly dividing the word of God effects your understanding of other verses.

Romans 5...... http://www.biblegate...+5&version=NKJV

I am sorry to tell you this bleak story, but it is true. Let's read vs 16a Again, the gift of God is not like the result of the one man's sin: The judgement followed one sin and brought condemnation? When Adam sinned, what followed? Judgment followed. How many sins? One sin. That means even if you sin once, under the law you cant escape God's judgement. You don't have to break many laws to receive judgement and condemnation, you have already broken many laws, right? In Adam we were already judged and condemned to death. So whats the deal, you have to include the law to understand the full meaning, the law was not spoken by God until Moses just as Paul says in verse 14 Nevertheless death reigned from Adam to Moses, even over those who had not sinned according to the likeness of the transgression of Adam, As soon as God spoke the words of the 10 Commandments everything changed, sin was defined. These were now offenses, violations of Gods spoken word, that work against the divine will.
Isaiah 55
[sup]11[/sup] So shall My word be that goes forth from My mouth;
It shall not return to Me void,
But it shall accomplish what I please,
And it shall prosper in the thing for which I sent it.

You see when God spoke the words it became apart of creation, just as He spoke all creation into being, He also spoke the law into being. So death reigned to all men because of one mans sin, the violation of the one command, until the law was spoken to Moses.
Rom 5:18 Therefore, as through one man’s offense judgment came to all men, resulting in condemnation, even so through one Man’s righteous act the free gift came to all men, resulting in justification of life. What happened between Adam and Christ the law came. So the Messiah could fulfill it "the law " overcoming death. Without the Law "conditional sin" Jesus Himself being born in the likeness of man also would have been under Adams curse to all men. Are you beginning to see the place the law serves. Jesus meet the conditions of the law.

The Law came to break the curse of Adam "death"

What Paul is saying, is death reigned, He never said we were born with sin but rather Adams curse of death was imputed on all men. And all those until the law came were condemned to death. even over those who had not sinned. The law came to set a standard; to over come the unconditional curse of death to all men; threw Adams sin. If the law had not come we would all still be condemned to death by Adams single sin. Do you understand now? The law came so that each man would personally transgress the law, to set a conditional standard for all men, so that men would no longer be under Adams cures of death, but would now be held accountable for their own sin. Jesus fulfilled the law. All men were condemned to death before the law came for Adams single sin. The law came and now you condemn yourself in your own sin. There I think I have put it in words you can understand.

So now it is true as Paul says all have sinned. But no man knew what sin was before the law came.
All men have sinned; therefore, death has passed upon all men Rom 5:12.
Do you now see the meaning in these words? ( therefore, death has passed upon all men ) Since the law all men have been responsible for their own sin and its result, death.

[sup]Other verses that indicate death was the inherent condition not sin.

[/sup]
Romans 7
[sup]7[/sup] What shall we say then? Is the law sin? Certainly not! On the contrary, I would not have known sin except through the law. For I would not have known covetousness unless the law had said, “You shall not covet. [sup]8[/sup] But sin, taking opportunity by the commandment, produced in me all manner of evil desire. For apart from the law sin was dead. [sup]9[/sup] I was alive once without the law, but when the commandment came, sin revived and I died. [sup]10[/sup] And the commandment, which was to bring life, I found to bring death. [sup]11[/sup] For sin, taking occasion by the commandment, deceived me, and by it killed me. [sup]12[/sup] Therefore the law is holy, and the commandment holy and just and good.

1 Corinthians 15
[sup]21[/sup] For since by man came death, by Man also came the resurrection of the dead. [sup]22[/sup] For as in Adam all die, even so in Christ all shall be made alive.
[sup]
Like I said I was on a roll or riding the the very peak of the wave in the Spirit when this thought came to me. Just thought Id throw it out there and share it.
[/sup]
 

TexUs

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Nov 18, 2010
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The Law came to break the curse of Adam "death"
What Paul is saying, is death reigned, He never said we were born with sin but rather Adams curse of death was imputed on all men.
I disagree but I believe we may be splitting hairs. To sin is death. Death is sin. They are linked.
However, sin always comes first. The descendants of Adam weren't suffering for his sin, they were suffering for their own.


Your own verses you quoted tell you that sin comes first and leads to death, you just read them in your biased light.


"All men have sinned; therefore, death has passed upon all men"
"Therefore" tells you that what's about to come (death) is a response to what was just stated (sin).

"For I would not have known covetousness unless the law had said, “You shall not covet. But sin, taking opportunity by the commandment, produced in me all manner of evil desire. For apart from the law sin was dead."
The word "dead" here doesn't describe a person. It describes sin. It does not support what you think it supports.
Indeed it says "Sin... produced".


"For since by man came death, by Man also came the resurrection of the dead. For as in Adam all die, even so in Christ all shall be made alive."
This is simply why I referred earlier to we may be splitting hairs. Death and sin are linked.
Regardless, this passage is talking about the resurrection of the dead, for him to address sin here would not have made sense anyway. He was leading the reader into his thought processes regarding the resurrection of the dead.
 

bud02

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Aug 14, 2010
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I disagree but I believe we may be splitting hairs. To sin is death. Death is sin. They are linked.
However, sin always comes first. The descendants of Adam weren't suffering for his sin, they were suffering for their own.


Your own verses you quoted tell you that sin comes first and leads to death, you just read them in your biased light.


"All men have sinned; therefore, death has passed upon all men"
"Therefore" tells you that what's about to come (death) is a response to what was just stated (sin).

"For I would not have known covetousness unless the law had said, “You shall not covet. But sin, taking opportunity by the commandment, produced in me all manner of evil desire. For apart from the law sin was dead."
The word "dead" here doesn't describe a person. It describes sin. It does not support what you think it supports.
Indeed it says "Sin... produced".


"For since by man came death, by Man also came the resurrection of the dead. For as in Adam all die, even so in Christ all shall be made alive."
This is simply why I referred earlier to we may be splitting hairs. Death and sin are linked.
Regardless, this passage is talking about the resurrection of the dead, for him to address sin here would not have made sense anyway. He was leading the reader into his thought processes regarding the resurrection of the dead.

[sup]Your reply is rather insufficient in light of these verse.

Rom 5:13-14[/sup] (For until the law sin was in the world, but sin is not imputed when there is no law.) [sup]14[/sup] Nevertheless death reigned from Adam to Moses, even over those who had not sinned according to the likeness of the transgression of Adam, who is a type of Him who was to come.

Rom 3:20
[sup]20[/sup] Therefore by the deeds of the law no flesh will be justified in His sight, for by the law is the knowledge of sin.
 

TexUs

New Member
Nov 18, 2010
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[sup]Your reply is rather insufficient in light of these verse.

Rom 5:13-14[/sup] (For until the law sin was in the world, but sin is not imputed when there is no law.) [sup]14[/sup] Nevertheless death reigned from Adam to Moses, even over those who had not sinned according to the likeness of the transgression of Adam, who is a type of Him who was to come.

Rom 3:20
[sup]20[/sup] Therefore by the deeds of the law no flesh will be justified in His sight, for by the law is the knowledge of sin.

You do realize Romans 5 doesn't say there wasn't sin, just that it wasn't imputed, right? You do realize that?

And you do realize knowledge of sin by law doesn't negate sin pre-existing the law, right? You do realize that?