Was Adam Imparted Free Will From The Beginning Of Creation?

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Taken

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Look [USER=7756]@Taken
, since the Word of God never conveys that Adam was imparted a free will, then each and every time you convey that Adam was imparted a freewill then you are wickedly adding to the Word of God. [/USER]


OP --->
Was Adam IMPARTED freewill from the beginning of Creation?

Who has answered YOUR Question with a YES?

I didn't. I expressly "rejected" the word "IMPARTED".

I Expressly responded to what Scripture DOES SAY.
What Scripture DOES SAY is this:

Gen 3:6
6 And when [B] the woman saw [/B] that the tree was good for food, and that it was pleasant to the eyes, and a tree to be desired to make one wise, [B] she took [/B] of the fruit thereof, and [B] did eat [/B] and [B] gave [/B] also unto [B] her husband [/B] with her; and [B] he did eat. [/B]

Regarding the OP..."FREEWILL"...
I said Yes, Adam of his FREEWILL...ATE.

Then you turn to Romans 8:20... repeatedly highlighting [B] "not willingly" [/B]

Romans 8:
[[B]20[/B]] For the creature was made [U] SUBJECT TO VANITY [/U] [B] not willingly,[/B] but by reason of him who hath subjected the same in hope,

YOU have accused me of being wicked...
Based on WHAT?
Adam being IMPARTED FREEWILL?...
I never said Adam was IMPARTED anything.
Based on WHAT?
Adam was NOT made SUBJECT TO VAINTY?
I never said Adam was NOT Subject to Vanity.

You spend so much time, saying what I did not say....why not stop your name calling, and PROVE your point...
Rom 8: "the creature WAS "not willingly" SUBJECT TO VANITY.

Since you introduce Rom 8:20...
[B] Prove ADAM was VAIN, "because" He ATE. [/B]

Since Gen: 3:6 was introduced that reveales
[B] Adam DID EAT ...
"PROVE" he ate Against his Freewill. [/B]
 

Taken

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Clearly, God commanded of the first man, not to eat of the tree of the knowledge of good and evil. That makes it pretty clear that the first man has ability to eat and not eat of it, together with the ability to distinguish and identify of the tree and the fruit of it among all others.

Obedience/disobedience is a conscious act of the will or that involves the will.

Tong
R3883

An argument is a reasoned opinion supported and explained by evidence.

Kermos presented his wonderment in a question.
"Imparted Freewill", expressly concerning ADAM.

No one responded to "imparted".
People responded to "freewill", concerning Adam.

Kermos then Name called, and posted Rom 8;
Highlighting "not willingly" while ignoring,
The TEXT in Rom 8, of a man being: Subject to VAINITY, not willingly.

Kermos then continues accusations and name calling...and repeating "not willingly".

Kermos is trying to change his argument from FREEWILL of Adam Eating....
TO...
ADAM "not willingly" Eating.
And name calling Because...no one is falling for his "nonsense".

An argument is a reasoned opinion supported and explained by evidence.

Freewill is a persons ability to make his own choices, according to his will, want, desire.

Subject to Vanity, may certainly be WHY a person makes the choices they DO FREELY MAKE...

Subject to Vanity, Does not mean A person CAN NOT FREELY CHOOSE.

Kermos has given NO REASONABLE opinion or EVIDENCE that Adams eating was because of
Adams VAINITY.

Thus there IS no reasonable argument...and whoopie for him...to do what he does...fill pages of posts of accusations and name calling.
 

Taken

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First, "freewill offering" is in the Old Testament, so this is not the New Testament. There are differences.

word "freewill" in "freewill offering" is an incorrect translation, so no scripture states that man has a freewill.

Mans Freewill...
is simply a man choosing between options unimpeded.

* You trying to "rewrite" Biblical History is fraudlent.

John 2:
[13] And the Jews' passover was at hand, and Jesus went up to Jerusalem,
[14] And found in the temple those that sold oxen and sheep and doves, and the changers of money sitting:
[15] And when he had made a scourge of small cords, he drove them all out of the temple, and the sheep, and the oxen; and poured out the changers' money, and overthrew the tables;

* scripture is specific of WHO exactly Jesus drove out of the Temple, and WHY.
* scirpture nevers says every person in the Temple on that day was selling, or buying animals.
* scripture nevers says on that Passover, men were to no longer to take animals to the Temple to Offer unto the Lord.

And YES Scripture absolutely says for men to Choose.

Josh 24:
[15] ...choose you this day whom ye will serve...
 

Kermos

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Back to square one, we have been through this...The thing is you tried these accusations earlier so I showed you scripture that proved you wrong, You completely ignored the point doubled down on your nature and change the point so you can accuse again even on points we have been through before, your misuse of scripture shows me you don't understand the verses you use, 1 Corinthians 2:14, If someone is not Born again they are a slave to sin, If you are not born again you wont understand the scriptures you use and you will just keep doing what your doing your a slave to it, Look if you don't have free will what are you trying to achieve you cant change anything anyway, Your just playing out your nature and cant change anyone or anything your just playing games as an accuser, But you don't have to be a slave to Sin you have a choice as exampled below

You picked a point of not having a choice, if you can actually stick to a point and actually discuss, its an easy point notice the choice in the verse below, you need to make a choice

Joshua 24:15 And if it seem evil unto you to serve the Lord, choose you this day whom ye will serve; whether the gods which your fathers served that were on the other side of the flood, or the gods of the Amorites, in whose land ye dwell: but as for me and my house, we will serve the Lord.

OK, so you are in square one.

In your previous post, you added "Adam Had a Choice" into the Word of God recorded in Genesis 1:1-31 Genesis 2:1- 25 Genesis 3:1-24.

Choice is NOT in Genesis 1:1-31 Genesis 2:1- 25 Genesis 3:1-24.

It is written "do not add to His words or He will reprove you, and you will be proved a liar" (Proverbs 30:6).

Now, you've brought up an interesting passage:

"A natural man does not receive the things of the Spirit of God, for they are foolishness to him; and he cannot understand them, because they are spiritually appraised" (1 Corinthians 2:14).

A natural man adulterates the Word of God with "choice" such that it is no longer the Word of God. You proclaim "the word of you".

Every person starts out life as a slave to sin (Romans 6:20), so as a slave to sin a person has no means to change from being a slave to sin on their own (1 Corinthians 2:14).

A slave of sin is purchased solely by Christ to be converted solely by Christ into a slave of Righteousness (Romans 6:18), and Christ is the Righteous Branch (Jeremiah 23 5).

Free will does not exist according to this Truth, that is Christ (John 14:6).

Square one, in this context, is the place where all people start, so square one is the place of a natural man.

The slave of sin rejects the Word of God by adding to the Word of God and subtracting from the Word of God.

We born of God receive this wonderfully blessed act of being born again by the Spirit of God (John 3:3-8), so by the Power of God (1 Corinthians 1:24) we see and enter the kingdom of God.

The Word of God says "you did not choose Me, but I chose you" (John 15:16) as well as "I chose you out of the world" (John 15:19, includes salvation).

You think that you can choose God, so you reject the Word of God who says "you did not choose Me" (John 15:16).

The slave of sin rejects the pure milk of the Word of God; on the other hand, the slave of righteousness joyfully receive the pure milk of the Word of God (1 Peter 2:2).

A natural man conveys that Joshua 24:15 indicates a person can choose God. The "choose" in Joshua 24:15 applies to false gods only. The "as for me and my house, we will serve the LORD" in Joshua 24:15 is an imperative, NOT an interogative, NOT a clause with Joshua "choosing" God, NOT "as for me and my house, we will choose to serve the LORD", but specifically a declaration of action which is "serve".

Joshua 24:15 is nothing about freewill.

Still, no free will written in the creation account (Genesis 1:1-31 Genesis 2:1- 25 Genesis 3:1-24), with Paul in accord for he conveyed that Adam "not willingly" ate of the tree since Paul included all time prior to Paul's birth by his writing "until now" (Romans 8:20-22).

Just as the original post shows richly in scripture, Adam was not imparted free will, and no man thereafter was imparted free will neither.
 

Kermos

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What an interesting question. Id like to try.

I believe Adam and Eve had free will since their creation.

"like newborn babies, long for the pure milk of the Word, so that by it you may grow in respect to salvation" (1 Peter 2:2).

I think the choice as a opposed to predetermination is important because it calls into question the nature of God and our salvation.

"Before Abraham was, I AM" (John 8:58).

"you did not choose Me, but I chose you" (John 15:16).

"I chose you out of the world" (John 15:19, includes salvation).

Lets be clear on what a choice is. From Oxford languages:

choice
/CHois/
Learn to pronounce

noun
an act of selecting or making a decision when faced with two or more possibilities.

Lets look at what Adam and Eve faced in the garden.
Genesis 2:16-17 KJV

16 And the Lord God commanded the man, saying, Of every tree of the garden thou mayest freely eat:

17 But of the tree of the knowledge of good and evil, thou shalt not eat of it: for in the day that thou eatest thereof thou shalt surely die.

So they could eat every tree of the garden but not the tree of knowledge of good and evil. So if a choice is a selection than this is the choice God gave them:

Every tree of the garden

The tree of the knowledge of good and evil.

They chose the latter.

The English word "choose" has a Hebrew word equivalent of "בָּחר" (bachar -Strong's Number 977).

The Hebrew word "בָּחר" does not occur in the creation account (Genesis 1:1-31 Genesis 2:1- 25 Genesis 3:1-24).

"Choose" does not occur in the Word here:

and commanded YHWH God to the man, saying "Of every tree in the garden to eat you will be eating, but of the tree of the knowledge of good and evil, not eating from, when in the day you are to eat of it to die you will be dying" (Genesis 2:16-17, this post in this thread examines the Hebrew to find tje words "freely", "surely", and "may" do not occur in Genesis 2:16-17 or easier to read original of the examination, but off ChristianityBoard.com).

Wynona, in Truth, Adam was commanded to eat of every tree of the garden with the exception of the tree of the knowledge of good and evil.

Furthermore, God did not say "you may choose to eat...".

See that action is expressed, not choice, but action.

The actions include "eat", "not eat", and "die".

Again, God did not say "you have the ability to choose, so...".

"Choose" does not occur in scripture here:

"When the woman saw that the tree was good for food, and that it was a delight to the eyes, and that the tree was desirable to make [one] wise, she took from its fruit and ate; and she gave also to her husband with her, and he ate" (Genesis 3:6).

Again, here is action, not choice, but action.

The passage does not say "and he chose to eat".

The passage does say "and he ate".

Now, lets define free will:

free will
/ˌfrē ˈwil/

noun
the power of acting without the constraint of necessity or fate; the ability to act at one's own discretion.

God already implied they had freedom.

Genesis 2:16 And the Lord God commanded the man, saying, Of every tree of the garden thou mayest freely eat:

An "implication" occurs when a person makes an inference upon a subject matter for which no underlying explicit text exists. The Word of God does not explicitly state that Adam had the ability to "choose", so you add the implicit "choice" by way of your thoughts as opposed to the pure milk of the Word of God.

My question is, if Adam and Eve were meant to Fall from the beginning, why was there options for them to eat without punishment. Why would God imply their freedom in eating it if they acted as they were predetermined?

They weren't. God knew they would make that choice. But to know something is not the same as making the creation do it.

Wynona, that which God knows will happen absolutely comes to pass.

No purpose of God's can be thwarted (Job 42:2).

Adam could not avoid eating of the tree of the knowledge of good and evil.

As to cause for Adam eating of the forbidden tree for food, here is the Word of God declaring the CAUSE with "Because you have listened to the voice of your wife, and have eaten from the tree about which I commanded you, saying, 'You shall not eat from it'" (Genesis 3:17).

Thank you ahead of time, @Kermos. I apologize if Ive repeated something said before. Ive followed quite a few pages of this thread before answering.

I appreciate the effort.

As a parting point for this post:

Despite the Creation account in Genesis 1-3 being silent about man's "will", there exists Apostolic teaching on the matter of man's "will" with regard to the creation account.

Adam did not exercise willpower to disobey God's command not to eat of the tree of the knowledge of good and evil (Genesis 2:16-17) for Paul wrote "the creation was subjected to futility, not willingly" (Romans 8:20, NASB); therefore, Adam did not make a choice, not a willing choice, to eat.
A "choice" by Adam is explicitly excluded by using scripture with scripture referencing, in fact, "the creature was made subject to vanity, not willingly" (Romans 8:20, KJV), so Adam acted not willingly but rather acted subject to vanity in his eating of the tree of the knowledge of good and evil.

"Not willingly" indicates "not choice".

Some people may claim that Paul was referring to a timeframe exclusively after what they call "the fall" (after Adam ate of the tree [Genesis 3:6]), but the continuity of the passage of Romans 8:20-22must be taken as a whole.

Paul left no room for disputing to the timeframe for which "not willingly" applies, for Paul also wrote "we know that the whole creation groans and suffers the pains of childbirth together until now" (Romans 8:22), and the phrase "until now" is the timeframe's most recent limiting factor which memes that all times prior to "now" are included, so "the whole creation" includes the moment after God breathed into Adam's nostrils the breath of life (Genesis 2:7) until Adam ate of the tree of the knowledge of good and evil (Genesis 3:6); therefore, we can be certain that Paul includes the timeframe that Adam ate of the tree in the travailing/groaning because Paul wrote of all of this in the same passage, i.e. Romans 8:20-22.

Paul includes the "not willingly" (Romans 8:20-22) to apply to the time that Adam ate of the tree (Genesis 3:6).

No scripture states Adam was created with a free will just as the original post shows; therefore, Adam nor anyone after Adam had a freewill.
 

Kermos

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show me the verse that says there is no such thing as will!

The Apostle Paul wrote "it does not depend on the man who wills or the man who runs, but on God who has mercy." (Romans 9:16).

I have repeatedly written that man does not have a free will.

As I repeatedly point out, largely, I use free will to mean man choosing toward God, emphatically Lord Jesus Christ.

That is item 2.1.3 in the original post.

I have never said nor written that man does not have a will.

Since you add to the Word of God without reservation, I am not surprised that you have added to what I have written.

why does Romans 8 include the concept of will if there is no such thing?

Freewill is not in Romans 8.

who was cursed in Genesis 3 without having executed any action in the text?
does God curse Satan because Satan was doing God's will and couldn't resist God's will?
who is it in Romans 9 that says "how can God judge?"
are these smart people? are they wise? who are these people?
are they righteous people that infer that God cannot judge? no? so why are they asking? what kind of questions do the wicked ask about the character of God?
is God the author of sin? who says He is? who says He isn't?

Freewill is not in Romans 9.

"A natural man does not receive the things of the Spirit of God, for they are foolishness to him; and he cannot understand them, because they are spiritually appraised" (1 Corinthians 2:14).

So, a natural man who does not know who God is asks mockingly or states things like:
  • Why does He still find fault? (Romans 9:19)
  • For who resists His will? (Romans 9:19)
  • Why did you make me like this? (Romans 9:20)

Wow, these things that Paul wrote are reminiscent to me of your question barrage in your quoted post above!

Paul exposed his righteous anger with such natural man thoughts when he wrote "On the contrary, who are you, O man, who answers back to God?" (Romans 9:20)

It's time to look at the passage:

You will say to me then, “Why does He still find fault? For who resists His will?” On the contrary, who are you, O man, who answers back to God? The thing molded will not say to the molder, “Why did you make me like this,” will it? Or does not the potter have a right over the clay, to make from the same lump one vessel for honorable use and another for common use? What if God, although willing to demonstrate His wrath and to make His power known, endured with much patience vessels of wrath prepared for destruction? And He did so to make known the riches of His glory upon vessels of mercy, which He prepared beforehand for glory (Romans 9:19-23)

In fact, Romans 9 is about God being omnipotent regarding man's salvation, and man being impotent in man's salvation.

It is written "HE HAS MERCY ON WHOM HE DESIRES, AND HE HARDENS WHOM HE DESIRES" (Romans 9:18).

why is Satan cursed by God "above all cattle" ?
why are the cattle cursed? search the scripture! have cattle been even mentioned or alluded to since the time it's written they were created?
is the creation "very good" ? is God good?

have i been doing anything in this thread apart from insisting we understand His Word and asking basic, intuitive questions about it?
and what have you been doing? and what has been your reaction to me asking about the understanding of rudimentary facts of the scripture?
who are you in this story? are you like Adam? put yourself in his shoes; you were in his loins, just like me! what would you do differently, and why? why did he do what he did? who is he?

Your proclivity to add to scripture and to subtract from the Word of God has been repeatedly shown in this thread.

Here is one practical post and another example post showing this fact.

Not to mention how many of your questions have been addressed scripturally in this thread.

You have sufficiently demonstrated that you do not understand the creation account.

Unless I perceive that your questions are genuine hunger for the Bread of Life instead of predatory like a wolf in sheep's clothing about the creation account I do not plan to answer or address such of your questions any further.

You vehemently added freewill into the Word of God recorded in Genesis 1:1-31 Genesis 2:1- 25 Genesis 3:1-24.

Furthermore, you just subtracted the Apostle Paul's writing that Adam did not willingly eat of the tree because Paul conveyed that nothing in creation willingly subjected anyting in creation to futility with Paul's writing of "the creation was subjected to futility, not willingly" (Romans 8:20).

You proclaim "the word of you". For you adulterate the Word of God with "choose" such that it is no longer the Word of God.

Still, no free will written in the creation account (Genesis 1:1-31 Genesis 2:1- 25 Genesis 3:1-24), with Paul in accord for he conveyed that Adam "not willingly" ate of the tree since Paul included all time prior to Paul's birth by his writing "until now" (Romans 8:20-22).

Just as the original post shows richly in scripture, Adam was not imparted free will, and no man thereafter was imparted free will neither.
 

grumix8

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But still your just wrong and just put your ahnds over your ears . You should see things and read them again because you do understand but just for argumentsake just didly dadle and repeat but do say anything but your right and the whole world is wrong :O.
 

Wynona

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"like newborn babies, long for the pure milk of the Word, so that by it you may grow in respect to salvation" (1 Peter 2:2).



"Before Abraham was, I AM" (John 8:58).

"you did not choose Me, but I chose you" (John 15:16).

"I chose you out of the world" (John 15:19, includes salvation).



The English word "choose" has a Hebrew word equivalent of "בָּחר" (bachar -Strong's Number 977).

The Hebrew word "בָּחר" does not occur in the creation account (Genesis 1:1-31 Genesis 2:1- 25 Genesis 3:1-24).

"Choose" does not occur in the Word here:

and commanded YHWH God to the man, saying "Of every tree in the garden to eat you will be eating, but of the tree of the knowledge of good and evil, not eating from, when in the day you are to eat of it to die you will be dying" (Genesis 2:16-17, this post in this thread examines the Hebrew to find tje words "freely", "surely", and "may" do not occur in Genesis 2:16-17 or easier to read original of the examination, but off ChristianityBoard.com).

Wynona, in Truth, Adam was commanded to eat of every tree of the garden with the exception of the tree of the knowledge of good and evil.

Furthermore, God did not say "you may choose to eat...".

See that action is expressed, not choice, but action.

The actions include "eat", "not eat", and "die".

Again, God did not say "you have the ability to choose, so...".

"Choose" does not occur in scripture here:

"When the woman saw that the tree was good for food, and that it was a delight to the eyes, and that the tree was desirable to make [one] wise, she took from its fruit and ate; and she gave also to her husband with her, and he ate" (Genesis 3:6).

Again, here is action, not choice, but action.

The passage does not say "and he chose to eat".

The passage does say "and he ate".



An "implication" occurs when a person makes an inference upon a subject matter for which no underlying explicit text exists. The Word of God does not explicitly state that Adam had the ability to "choose", so you add the implicit "choice" by way of your thoughts as opposed to the pure milk of the Word of God.



Wynona, that which God knows will happen absolutely comes to pass.

No purpose of God's can be thwarted (Job 42:2).

Adam could not avoid eating of the tree of the knowledge of good and evil.

As to cause for Adam eating of the forbidden tree for food, here is the Word of God declaring the CAUSE with "Because you have listened to the voice of your wife, and have eaten from the tree about which I commanded you, saying, 'You shall not eat from it'" (Genesis 3:17).



I appreciate the effort.

As a parting point for this post:

Despite the Creation account in Genesis 1-3 being silent about man's "will", there exists Apostolic teaching on the matter of man's "will" with regard to the creation account.

Adam did not exercise willpower to disobey God's command not to eat of the tree of the knowledge of good and evil (Genesis 2:16-17) for Paul wrote "the creation was subjected to futility, not willingly" (Romans 8:20, NASB); therefore, Adam did not make a choice, not a willing choice, to eat.
A "choice" by Adam is explicitly excluded by using scripture with scripture referencing, in fact, "the creature was made subject to vanity, not willingly" (Romans 8:20, KJV), so Adam acted not willingly but rather acted subject to vanity in his eating of the tree of the knowledge of good and evil.

"Not willingly" indicates "not choice".

Some people may claim that Paul was referring to a timeframe exclusively after what they call "the fall" (after Adam ate of the tree [Genesis 3:6]), but the continuity of the passage of Romans 8:20-22must be taken as a whole.

Paul left no room for disputing to the timeframe for which "not willingly" applies, for Paul also wrote "we know that the whole creation groans and suffers the pains of childbirth together until now" (Romans 8:22), and the phrase "until now" is the timeframe's most recent limiting factor which memes that all times prior to "now" are included, so "the whole creation" includes the moment after God breathed into Adam's nostrils the breath of life (Genesis 2:7) until Adam ate of the tree of the knowledge of good and evil (Genesis 3:6); therefore, we can be certain that Paul includes the timeframe that Adam ate of the tree in the travailing/groaning because Paul wrote of all of this in the same passage, i.e. Romans 8:20-22.

Paul includes the "not willingly" (Romans 8:20-22) to apply to the time that Adam ate of the tree (Genesis 3:6).

No scripture states Adam was created with a free will just as the original post shows; therefore, Adam nor anyone after Adam had a freewill.
Thank you for replying.

So you would say salvation is God's choice and not a choice we make?
 

Kermos

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You are overgeneralizing the word creation to include Adam.

Sir, the Apostle Paul is the one who wrote "the whole creation" (Romans 8:22) as he added emphasis to his earlier use of "the creation" Romans 8:20).

You are trying to eliminate the way that Jews would emphasize a matter by repeating it.

Since Paul wrote "the whole creation" (Romans 8:22), then he included Adam.

Adam freely chose to listen to eve and eat of the fruit!

Considering "listen":

As to cause for Adam eating of the forbidden tree for food, here is the Word of God declaring the CAUSE with "Because you have listened to the voice of your wife, and have eaten from the tree about which I commanded you, saying, 'You shall not eat from it'" (Genesis 3:17).

The Word of God literally attributes the cause to Adam "listened to the voice of" his "wife" for Adam to "have eaten from the tree about which" God "commanded" him ", saying, 'You shall not eat from it'".

The action of "listen" is In this passage, not "choice", but action.

Considering "he ate":

"When the woman saw that the tree was good for food, and that it was a delight to the eyes, and that the tree was desirable to make [one] wise, she took from its fruit and ate; and she gave also to her husband with her, and he ate" (Genesis 3:6).

Again, here is action of "ate", not choice, but action.

The passage does not say "and he chose to eat".

The passage does say "and he ate".

Considering "choose":

The English word "choose" has a Hebrew word equivalent of "בָּחר" (bachar -Strong's Number 977).

The Hebrew word "בָּחר" does not occur in the creation account (Genesis 1:1-31 Genesis 2:1- 25 Genesis 3:1-24).

Since "choose" does not occur in the Word here in the creation account, then you are doing a thing called adding to the Word of God.

Just because the words free will do not appear, does not mean they did not have it.

The Word of God does not say that Adam had free will, so the ONLY way mere man can conclude that Adam had free will is for mere man to add free will into the Word of God where free will does not exist.

Genesis doesn't mention Adam actually eating the food God allowed, but we know Her did.

There is a significant difference between the claim that Adam had the ability to choose God versus Adam's ability to eat of a tree.

Scripture reveals of Adam "he did eat" (Genesis 3:6); therefore, scripture shows that Adam was imparted the ability to eat.

No scripture states that Adam was imparted a free will to choose God.

Behold the difference, Mr. Nolette.

but in Gen. 3 :

6 And when the woman saw that the tree was good for food, and that it was pleasant to the eyes, and a tree to be desired to make one wise, she took of the fruit thereof, and did eat, and gave also unto her husband with her; and he did eat.

7 And the eyes of them both were opened, and they knew that they were naked; and they sewed fig leaves together, and made themselves aprons.

8 And they heard the voice of the Lord God walking in the garden in the cool of the day: and Adam and his wife hid themselves from the presence of the Lord God amongst the trees of the garden.

9 And the Lord God called unto Adam, and said unto him, Where art thou?

10 And he said, I heard thy voice in the garden, and I was afraid, because I was naked; and I hid myself.

11 And he said, Who told thee that thou wast naked? Hast thou eaten of the tree, whereof I commanded thee that thou shouldest not eat?

12 And the man said, The woman whom thou gavest to be with me, she gave me of the tree, and I did eat.

13 And the Lord God said unto the woman, What is this that thou hast done? And the woman said, The serpent beguiled me, and I did eat.

14 And the Lord God said unto the serpent, Because thou hast done this, thou art cursed above all cattle, and above every beast of the field; upon thy belly shalt thou go, and dust shalt thou eat all the days of thy life:

15 And I will put enmity between thee and the woman, and between thy seed and her seed; it shall bruise thy head, and thou shalt bruise his heel.

16 Unto the woman he said, I will greatly multiply thy sorrow and thy conception; in sorrow thou shalt bring forth children; and thy desire shall be to thy husband, and he shall rule over thee.

17 And unto Adam he said, Because thou hast hearkened unto the voice of thy wife, and hast eaten of the tree, of which I commanded thee, saying, Thou shalt not eat of it: cursed is the ground for thy sake; in sorrow shalt thou eat of it all the days of thy life;

speaks of freedom to choose or not.

Of Genesis 3:6-17, you wrote "speaks of freedom to choose or not"; on the other hand, the word "choose" is not spoken once in the passage!

Eve allowed herself to be beguiled

Per Eve's later words of "The serpent deceived me, and I ate" (Genesis 3:13), she did not "allow" "herself to be beguiled".

The words of Genesis 3:6 do not convey that "Eve allowed herself to be beguiled".

The words of Genesis 3:6 do convey Eve's lust.

The Apostle Paul says she did not willingly eat of the tree (Romans 8:20-22), so you word "allow" is an addition to scripture..

and Adam simply ate when offered the fruit from Eve.

Nothing states that she "offered" the fruit of which you imply he accepted by his freewill.

In "and gave also unto her husband with her; and he did eat" (Genesis 3:6), see that she "gave", not "offered", but "gave".

That whole offer/accept between Adam ans Eve was moot before you wrote it because Paul wrote that Adam did not willingly subject the creation to futility (Romans 8:20).

Don't forget the CAUSE recorded in Genesis 3:17.

Because of this sin all of creation was subjected to vanity and cursed.

That is NOT what Paul wrote in "the creation was subjected to futility, not willingly, but because of Him who subjected it, in hope that the creation itself also will be set free from its slavery to corruption into the freedom of the glory of the children of God. For we know that the whole creation groans and suffers the pains of childbirth together until now" (Romans 8:20-22).

That conluding "together until now" includes the time prior to, during, and after Adam ate of the tree of the knowledge of good and evil.

It was when god cursed and imposed the start of death on Adam and Eve did they lose free will.

No scripture states your thoughts.

Free will has to do with the ability to have a spiritual relationship with god. No one since before Adam and eve have that free will because they lost it and we are born in that state as their offspring. Our free will is restored when we are born again and made alive spiritually again. then we have the ability and power to choose to obey or not obey god.

Now you are trying to steal the fruit of the Spirit from God.

Lord Jesus says "I am the vine, you are the branches; he who abides in Me and I in him, he bears much fruit, for apart from Me you can do nothing" John 15:5).

The Word of God says "he who practices the truth comes to the Light, so that his deeds may be manifested as having been wrought in God" (John 3:21).

The Mighty God says ""you did not choose Me, but I chose you" (John 15:16) as well as "I chose you out of the world" (John 15:19, includes salvation).

The King of the Kingdom of God provides no exceptions to His choosing.

the lost can do nothing to please god as it is written that even our good works as lost people are filthy rags before God.

You just added that Adam had a choice into the Word of God recorded in Genesis 1:1-31 Genesis 2:1- 25 Genesis 3:1-24.

Furthermore, you just subtracted the Apostle Paul's writing that Adam did not willingly eat of the tree because Paul conveyed that nothing in creation willingly subjected anyting in creation to futility with Paul's writing of "the creation was subjected to futility, not willingly" (Romans 8:20).

It is written "do not add to His words or He will reprove you, and you will be proved a liar" (Proverbs 30:6).

Still, no free will written in the creation account (Genesis 1:1-31 Genesis 2:1- 25 Genesis 3:1-24), with Paul in accord for he conveyed that Adam "not willingly" ate of the tree since Paul included all time prior to Paul's birth by his writing "until now" (Romans 8:20-22).

Just as the original post shows richly in scripture, Adam was not imparted free will, and no man thereafter was imparted free will neither.
 
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Kermos

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snip...
I am not talking about free will
...snip

Then you are off topic for this thread.

Still, no free will written in the creation account (Genesis 1:1-31 Genesis 2:1- 25 Genesis 3:1-24), with Paul in accord for he conveyed that Adam "not willingly" ate of the tree since Paul included all time prior to Paul's birth by his writing "until now" (Romans 8:20-22).

Just as the original post shows richly in scripture, Adam was not imparted free will, and no man thereafter was imparted free will neither.
 

post

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Then you are off topic for this thread.

not so.


you clearly don't understand Genesis 3: we need to fix that before you can competently discuss whether the scripture indicates man is created with free will.
so there are fundamental things 100% necessary and apropos to be discussed as a foundation for the essential thread topic. these things must be covered in order to have an intelligent conversation about the OP topic, but you are clearly not interested in making this a meaningful or useful thread. you just want a platform to parrot the theology you've been indoctrinated into.

briefly:
you're not ready to talk about the implications of Genesis 3 until you understand Genesis 3.
that's why i'm not addressing your pet idea yet. you ain't to the point where you can hear what there is to be said about it.

you don't get to skip arithmetic and expect to study calculus.
 

post

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  • why is every living soul brought by God for Adam to name? ((Genesis 2:19))
 

Ronald Nolette

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Sir, the Apostle Paul is the one who wrote "the whole creation" (Romans 8:22) as he added emphasis to his earlier use of "the creation" Romans 8:20).

You are trying to eliminate the way that Jews would emphasize a matter by repeating it.

Since Paul wrote "the whole creation" (Romans 8:22), then he included Adam.



Considering "listen":

As to cause for Adam eating of the forbidden tree for food, here is the Word of God declaring the CAUSE with "Because you have listened to the voice of your wife, and have eaten from the tree about which I commanded you, saying, 'You shall not eat from it'" (Genesis 3:17).

The Word of God literally attributes the cause to Adam "listened to the voice of" his "wife" for Adam to "have eaten from the tree about which" God "commanded" him ", saying, 'You shall not eat from it'".

The action of "listen" is In this passage, not "choice", but action.

Considering "he ate":

"When the woman saw that the tree was good for food, and that it was a delight to the eyes, and that the tree was desirable to make [one] wise, she took from its fruit and ate; and she gave also to her husband with her, and he ate" (Genesis 3:6).

Again, here is action of "ate", not choice, but action.

The passage does not say "and he chose to eat".

The passage does say "and he ate".

Considering "choose":

The English word "choose" has a Hebrew word equivalent of "בָּחר" (bachar -Strong's Number 977).

The Hebrew word "בָּחר" does not occur in the creation account (Genesis 1:1-31 Genesis 2:1- 25 Genesis 3:1-24).

Since "choose" does not occur in the Word here in the creation account, then you are doing a thing called adding to the Word of God.



The Word of God does not say that Adam had free will, so the ONLY way mere man can conclude that Adam had free will is for mere man to add free will into the Word of God where free will does not exist.



There is a significant difference between the claim that Adam had the ability to choose God versus Adam's ability to eat of a tree.

Scripture reveals of Adam "he did eat" (Genesis 3:6); therefore, scripture shows that Adam was imparted the ability to eat.

No scripture states that Adam was imparted a free will to choose God.

Behold the difference, Mr. Nolette.



Of Genesis 3:6-17, you wrote "speaks of freedom to choose or not"; on the other hand, the word "choose" is not spoken once in the passage!



Per Eve's later words of "The serpent deceived me, and I ate" (Genesis 3:13), she did not "allow" "herself to be beguiled".

The words of Genesis 3:6 do not convey that "Eve allowed herself to be beguiled".

The words of Genesis 3:6 do convey Eve's lust.

The Apostle Paul says she did not willingly eat of the tree (Romans 8:20-22), so you word "allow" is an addition to scripture..



Nothing states that she "offered" the fruit of which you imply he accepted by his freewill.

In "and gave also unto her husband with her; and he did eat" (Genesis 3:6), see that she "gave", not "offered", but "gave".

That whole offer/accept between Adam ans Eve was moot before you wrote it because Paul wrote that Adam did not willingly subject the creation to futility (Romans 8:20).

Don't forget the CAUSE recorded in Genesis 3:17.



That is NOT what Paul wrote in "the creation was subjected to futility, not willingly, but because of Him who subjected it, in hope that the creation itself also will be set free from its slavery to corruption into the freedom of the glory of the children of God. For we know that the whole creation groans and suffers the pains of childbirth together until now" (Romans 8:20-22).

That conluding "together until now" includes the time prior to, during, and after Adam ate of the tree of the knowledge of good and evil.



No scripture states your thoughts.



Now you are trying to steal the fruit of the Spirit from God.

Lord Jesus says "I am the vine, you are the branches; he who abides in Me and I in him, he bears much fruit, for apart from Me you can do nothing" John 15:5).

The Word of God says "he who practices the truth comes to the Light, so that his deeds may be manifested as having been wrought in God" (John 3:21).

The Mighty God says ""you did not choose Me, but I chose you" (John 15:16) as well as "I chose you out of the world" (John 15:19, includes salvation).

The King of the Kingdom of God provides no exceptions to His choosing.



You just added that Adam had a choice into the Word of God recorded in Genesis 1:1-31 Genesis 2:1- 25 Genesis 3:1-24.

Furthermore, you just subtracted the Apostle Paul's writing that Adam did not willingly eat of the tree because Paul conveyed that nothing in creation willingly subjected anyting in creation to futility with Paul's writing of "the creation was subjected to futility, not willingly" (Romans 8:20).

It is written "do not add to His words or He will reprove you, and you will be proved a liar" (Proverbs 30:6).

Still, no free will written in the creation account (Genesis 1:1-31 Genesis 2:1- 25 Genesis 3:1-24), with Paul in accord for he conveyed that Adam "not willingly" ate of the tree since Paul included all time prior to Paul's birth by his writing "until now" (Romans 8:20-22).

Just as the original post shows richly in scripture, Adam was not imparted free will, and no man thereafter was imparted free will neither.

You wrote this lengthy epistle and forget that choices cause actions! Adam "chose" to eat , chose otr listen to His wife and then ate! choice produces actions.
 

Kermos

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no i didn't -- i put this:

For I consider that the sufferings of this present time are not worthy to be compared with the glory which shall be revealed in us. For the earnest expectation of the creation eagerly waits for the revealing of the sons of God. For the creation was subjected to futility, not willingly, but because of Him who subjected it in hope; because the creation itself also will be delivered from the bondage of corruption into the glorious liberty of the children of God. For we know that the whole creation groans and labors with birth pangs together until now. Not only that, but we also who have the firstfruits of the Spirit, even we ourselves groan within ourselves, eagerly waiting for the adoption, the redemption of our body. For we were saved in this hope, but hope that is seen is not hope; for why does one still hope for what he sees? But if we hope for what we do not see, we eagerly wait for it with perseverance.
(Romans 8:18-25, nkjv)

our hope - being fully redeemed as sons of God, is here contrasted with the hope of the creation ((being a separate entity from "us" who are already a new creation)): the hope of the creation ((distinct from "us")) is the revealing of the redeemed & restored mankind reconciled with God.

this is nonsense.
i used "the revealing" as a noun, just like Paul does here.

I used placeholders to reference into your writing. You failed to recognize something so simple..

You wrote "the creation is the revealing of the redeemed".

Your "is" in "is the revealing" is present tense.

Paul wrote "the glory which shall be revealed in us" has a future tense verb phrase of "shall be revealed", so Paul did NOT use "revealed" as a noun as you wickedly asserted.

You used "is the revealing" which is present tense; on the other hand, Paul wrote "shall be revealed" which is future tense.

Even with the scripture right in front of you, you add to and/or subtract from scripture.

we are dust. did you forget that?
what do you think, God cursed only dirt in Genesis 3?
why does He say the serpent is cursed above all cattle?
wait what? when did cattle get cursed?
and how is it that plants and animals decay and die?
you think all that corruption and death is part of God's original creation?

Go read the creation account recorded in Genesis 1:1-31 Genesis 2:1- 25 Genesis 3:1-24 and perhaps God will grant you wisdom.

problem here is that you do not understand the scripture, apparently.
and while that's being revealed, you have no better response than to try to attack my character.

Truly, as I pointed out:

Look at you @post trying to stuff words into Paul such that Romans 8:18-25 exclusively refers to "the ground being cursed".

The word "ground" does not appear in Romans 8:18-25.

Paul's use of the word "creation" in Romans 8:18-25 which is much broader in scope than your use of the word "ground".

In effect, you subtract "creation" from scripture; meanwhile, you add "ground".

I stated facts based on your writing.

*ahem*

And he said, I heard Thy voice in the garden
(Genesis 3:10)

This passage does NOT say "they turned to Him" (your words).

They were last reported as hiding themselves from God (Genesis 3:8) with no location nor posture change indicated thereafter until God clothed and removed them from the garden (Genesis 3:21-24).

This means scripture does not indicate that "they turned to Him" (your words).

and they confessed their sin:

I did eat.
(Genesis 3:12)

This passage does NOT say "they turned to Him" (your words).

I did eat.
(Genesis 3:13)

This passage does NOT say "they turned to Him" (your words).

They had not turned to God, and this is proved out by God's removal of them from the garden (Genesis 3:21-24), so they were put to shame of punishment.

The one who believes in God will never be put to shame (1 Peter 2:6).

*ahem* Genesis 3:20 *cough*

WHY DID DEAD ADAM CHANGE HIS DEAD WIFE'S NAME TO "LIFE" ?

There was NO name change as recorded in "called Woman" (Genesis 2:23) and "called his wife’s name Eve" (Genesis 3:20), so you are adding to and/or subtracting from scripture.

still no where in the entire Bible is it written, "there is no free will"
you have yet to produce any scripture saying 'there is no free will'
yet you keep saying that over and over and over.

hmm.

The Word of God says "you did not choose Me, but I chose you" (John 15:16) as well as "I chose you out of the world" (John 15:19, includes salvation).

I use free will to mean man choosing toward Lord Jesus Christ unto being saved from the wrath of God.

Based on the above Word of God, there is no free will in scripture.

God alone and by God's grace mercy and Power brings man to salvation.

You practice the lawlessness of adding Adam could exercise free will into the Word of God recorded in Genesis 1:1-31 Genesis 2:1- 25 Genesis 3:1-24.

Furthermore, you just subtracted the Apostle Paul's writing that Adam did not willingly eat of the tree because Paul conveyed that nothing in creation willingly subjected anyting in creation to futility with Paul's writing of "the creation was subjected to futility, not willingly" (Romans 8:20).

You proclaim "the word of you". For you adulterate the Word of God with "choose" such that it is no longer the Word of God.

Still, no free will written in the creation account (Genesis 1:1-31 Genesis 2:1- 25 Genesis 3:1-24), with Paul in accord for he conveyed that Adam "not willingly" ate of the tree since Paul included all time prior to Paul's birth by his writing "until now" (Romans 8:20-22).

Just as the original post shows richly in scripture, Adam was not imparted free will, and no man thereafter was imparted free will neither.
 
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Kermos

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Uh- uh... naughty, naughty. You are appealing to my freedom and autonomy to assign something to myself.
You have no wiggle room in your cult to do that.

Uh- uh... naughty, naughty. In your flesh you failed to see that I referred to you in the default state for people of being in the flesh, and the flesh is opposed to the Holy Spirit of God (Galatians 5:17).

Adam was in the flesh, too (Genesis 2:7, Genesis 2:23), before he ate, when he ate (Genesis 3:6), and after he ate.

Still, no free will written in the creation account (Genesis 1:1-31 Genesis 2:1- 25 Genesis 3:1-24), with Paul in accord for he conveyed that Adam "not willingly" ate of the tree since Paul included all time prior to Paul's birth by his writing "until now" (Romans 8:20-22).

Just as the original post shows richly in scripture, Adam was not imparted free will, and no man thereafter was imparted free will neither.
 

Kermos

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1 Timothy 2:14 tells us Adam was not deceived.
that means his wife did not deceive him.
that means she did not coerce him to eat.

your interpretation is contradicting scripture.

Woman answers to God, confessing that she was deceived by the Serpent. God curses the serpent.
Adam answers back to God, confessing that his wife, whom God had made him caretaker of, had eaten, so he ate also.
God does not curse Woman. God does not curse Adam.

Adam & his wife answered God very well - in confession. God accepts their answers.
compare Cain's answer - Cain says, "i don't know" -- which is a lie. Cain says "am i my brother's keeper?" which is attacking God's question as unjust.
God curses Cain.

Woman answers well.
Adam answers well.
Cain answers wickedly.

God covers the shame of Adam & his wife.
God curses the Serpent and God curses Cain.

is this arbitrary? God is not unjust; His judgements are perfect and holy.
read the text. ask the obvious questions. find the answers. look for it testifying of Christ.

Your statement "your interpretation is contradicting scripture" is foolishness.

No scripture states Adam was deceived by his wife, so neither do I nor have I. You wickedly bear false witness against me.

Your foolishness against God for Adam eating of the forbidden tree for food is the CAUSE which you assign to freewill, yet the CAUSE for Adam eating of the forbidden tree for food is identified by the Word of God with "Because you have listened to the voice of your wife, and have eaten from the tree about which I commanded you, saying, 'You shall not eat from it'" (Genesis 3:17).

So the CAUSE was Adam listened to the voice of his wife and ate of the tree about which God commanded Adam "You shall not eat from it" (Genesis 3:17).

God covered Adam's flesh with garments, yet God did not remove Adam's flesh.

Adam had the shame of sin and the shame of punishment for his sin.

God did not erase Adam's shame for God removed Adam from the garden (Genesis 3:23-24).

So, your thoughts that Adam turned to God means that, according to you, in effect, God punished Adam by turning away Adam who turned to God; in other words, your writings reveal that you think God is unjust. Your free-willian philosophy is extremely wicked.

The Apostle Peter wrote "The one who believes in God will never be put to shame" (1 Peter 2:6), yet you claim Adam turned to God in Genesis 3:10 then God put Adam to shame after Genesis 3:10 for the scripture reveals that God pronounced the punishment, even the shameful for Adam punishment, in Genesis 3:17-19. Behold that you subtract the Apostle Peter's writing in 1 Peter 2:6!

Nonetheless, no scripture indicates that Adam turned to God.

You think your word is so very important that you dictate to God as you add to and subtract from scripture.

Still, no free will written in the creation account (Genesis 1:1-31 Genesis 2:1- 25 Genesis 3:1-24), with Paul in accord for he conveyed that Adam "not willingly" ate of the tree since Paul included all time prior to Paul's birth by his writing "until now" (Romans 8:20-22).

Just as the original post shows richly in scripture, Adam was not imparted free will, and no man thereafter was imparted free will neither.
 
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Kermos

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Why are you rebuking me for doing something and thinking in a manner over which I have no control?
The very fact that you berate me for going against the will of God is testimony to how your own theory falls apart.

I proclaim the Word of God to you for the Word of God is the Power of God unto salvation for all that receive the work of God which is believing in Jesus whom the Father has sent and no part of God's salvation is the work of man but God's salvation is God's grace and God's mercy (Romans 1:16, John 6:29, Ephesians 2:8-10).

You have NO control over salvation, yet you claim you do control God by forcing God to give you salvation by your purported choice of Jesus, and your scripturally-contradictory claim is a very wicked claim.

There is no level that a person can choose Lord Jesus because He says "you did not choose Me, but I chose you" (John 15:16) as well as "I chose you out of the world" (John 15:19, includes salvation) - Jesus, being God, did not provide any exception for choosing toward Jesus. Lord Jesus speaks to all believers in all time because He also said "I do not ask on behalf of these alone, but for those also who believe in Me through their word" (John 17:20)! All these words of Jesus are at the same supper! All glory is God's! With man, salvation is impossible (Matthew 19:25-26)! All glory in the salvation of man is God's (John 15:5, Isaiah 42:8, Psalm 3:8)!

Still, no free will written in the creation account (Genesis 1:1-31 Genesis 2:1- 25 Genesis 3:1-24), with Paul in accord for he conveyed that Adam "not willingly" ate of the tree since Paul included all time prior to Paul's birth by his writing "until now" (Romans 8:20-22).

Just as the original post shows richly in scripture, Adam was not imparted free will, and no man thereafter was imparted free will neither.
 

Kermos

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He absolutely had freewill. Adam could have asked His wife where did you get that fruit from? Eve could have asked God about her meeting with the serpent. You can see choice all through Genesis 3, got to teach a lesson on it yesterday morning. Link below if anyone interested. God bless, thank you for the question.

It is written "do not add to His words or He will reprove you, and you will be proved a liar" (Proverbs 30:6).

You proved yourself a liar when you wrote "You can see choice all through Genesis 3" because the English word "choose" has a Hebrew word equivalent of "בָּחר" (bachar -Strong's Number 977), yet the Hebrew word "בָּחר" does not occur in the creation account (Genesis 1:1-31 Genesis 2:1- 25 Genesis 3:1-24).

Still, no free will written in the creation account (Genesis 1:1-31 Genesis 2:1- 25 Genesis 3:1-24), with Paul in accord for he conveyed that Adam "not willingly" ate of the tree since Paul included all time prior to Paul's birth by his writing "until now" (Romans 8:20-22).

Just as the original post shows richly in scripture, Adam was not imparted free will, and no man thereafter was imparted free will neither.
 
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Kermos

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But if I can not resist his will, then obviously God wants me to do what I'm doing. But I can resist. Because the next thing Paul says indicates we can talk back to God. Your theology doesn't allow that.

Paul wasn't saying we can not resist God's will. The mystery objector was saying that and Paul says he's wrong to talk back to God.

You want to do what you are doing for it is written "the flesh desires against the Spirit, and the Spirit against the flesh. For these are opposed to one another" (Galatians 5:17).

Apparently, you do not know my belief because I wrote that you do just as the Apostle Paul wrote with "You will say to me then, “Why does He still find fault? For who resists His will?" (Romans 9:19).

What a high and lofty opinion you have of yourself that you claim that you are sufficiently almighty to resist Almighty God's will!

No purpose of God's can be thwarted (Job 42:2), yet @Renniks claims to be able to thwart God.

Still, no free will written in the creation account (Genesis 1:1-31 Genesis 2:1- 25 Genesis 3:1-24), with Paul in accord for he conveyed that Adam "not willingly" ate of the tree since Paul included all time prior to Paul's birth by his writing "until now" (Romans 8:20-22).

Just as the original post shows richly in scripture, Adam was not imparted free will, and no man thereafter was imparted free will neither.
 
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