“This election supposes that the persons chosen are found amongst others. The word “election” denotes this; it signifies a choosing out. The elect are found by cleansing grace amongst the rest of mankind. They were of the company from amongst whom they are chosen. They were found amongst them not only as they dwell amongst them—elect and reprobate are found mixed together, as tares and wheat—and not only as they are of the same human nature: they are descended of the same first parents and are in the same outward condition.”
Jonathan Edwards: Election is not on the basis of anything foreseen in the elect.
Election for what??? You need to understand this before you read my response...
NASB Eph 1:11 also we have obtained an inheritance,
having been predestined according to His purpose who works all things after the counsel of His will,
Net Eph 1:11 In Christ
28 we too have been claimed as God's own possession,
29(G280) since we were predestined (G4309) according to the one purpose of him who accomplishes all things according to the counsel of his will
29 tn Grk "we were appointed by lot." The notion of the verb κληρόω (klēroō) in the OT was to "appoint a portion by lot" (the more frequent cognate verb κληρονομέω [klēronomeō] meant "obtain a portion by lot"). In the passive, as here, the idea is that "we were appointed [as a portion] by lot" (BDAG 548 s.v. κληρόω 1). The words "God's own" have been supplied in the translation to clarify this sense of the verb. An alternative interpretation is that believers receive a portion as an inheritance: "In Christ we too have been appointed a portion of the inheritance." See H. W. Hoehner,
Ephesians, 226-27, for discussion on this interpretive issue.
Word study
G2820
κληρόω
klēróō; contracted
klērṓ, fut.
klērṓsō, from
klḗros (G2819), a lot. To cast lots, determine by lot, i.e., to determine something, choose someone. In
Eph_1:11, it means, "in whom the lot has fallen upon us also, as foreordained thereto . . . to be" (a.t.). The idea expressed here is that Christians have become heirs of God due to the fact that God predestined them according to His purpose. In a manner of speaking, the "lot" fell to believers not by chance but solely because of the gracious and sovereign decision of God- Almighty to select them to be His heirs.
Deriv.:
prosklēróō (G4345), to give or assign by lot.
Pro 20:24 The steps of a person
73 are ordained by
74 the LORD — so how can anyone
75 understand his own
76 way?
Pro 20:24
73 tn Heb "the steps of a man"; but "man" is the noun גֶּבֶר (gever, in pause), indicating an important, powerful person. BDB 149-50 s.v. suggests it is used of men in their role of defending women and children; if that can be validated, then a translation of "man" would be appropriate here. But the line seems to have a wider, more general application. The "steps" represent (by implied comparison) the course of life (cf. NLT "the road we travel").
74 tn Heb "from the LORD"; NRSV "ordered by the Lord"; NIV "directed by the Lord."
sn To say that one's steps are
ordained by the LORD means that one's course of actions, one's whole life, is divinely prepared and sovereignly superintended (e.g.,
Gen_50:26;
Pro_3:6).
Ironically, man is not actually in control of his own steps.
75 tn The verse uses an independent nominative absolute to point up the contrast between the mortal and the immortal: "and man, how can he understand his way?" The verb in the sentence would then be classified as a potential imperfect; and the whole question rhetorical. It is affirming that humans cannot understand very much at all about their lives.
Joh 6:44 No one can come to me unless the Father who sent me draws him,
66 and I will raise him up at the last day.
Net Bible
Joh 6:44 -
66 tn Or "attracts him," or "pulls him." The word is used of pulling or dragging, often by force. It is even used once of magnetic attraction (A. Oepke,
TDNT 2:503).
sn The Father who sent me draws him. The author never specifically explains what this "drawing" consists of. It is evidently some kind of attraction; whether it is binding and irresistible or not is not mentioned. But there does seem to be a parallel with
Joh_6:65, where Jesus says that no one is able to come to him unless the Father has allowed it. This apparently parallels the use of Isaiah by John to reflect the spiritual blindness of the Jewish leaders (see the quotations from Isaiah in
Joh_9:41 and
Joh_12:39-40).
NASB Rom 8:28 And we know that God causes all things to work together for good to those who love God, to those
who are called according to His purpose. 29 For those
whom He foreknew,
He also predestined to become conformed to the image of His Son, so that He would be the firstborn among many brethren; 30 and these whom
He predestined, He also called; and these whom He called, He also justified; and these whom He justified, He also glorified. 31 What then shall we say to these things? If God
is for us, who
is against us?
NASB Joh 6:65 And He was saying, "For this reason I have said to you, that
no one can come to Me unless it has been granted him from the Father."
CEV Joh 6:65 Then Jesus said, "
You cannot come to me, unless the Father makes you want to come. That is why I have told these things to all of you."
You have no Idea... Your only thinking of Jesus dying so you don't burn in hell... You know nothing of the coming Kingdom...
Pay attention...
Luk 4:43 But He said to them,
"I must preach the kingdom of God to the other cities also, for I was sent for this purpose."
Luk 8:1 Soon afterwards, He began going around from one city and village to another, proclaiming and preaching the kingdom of God. The twelve were with Him,
Luk 9:1 And He called the twelve together, and gave them power and authority over all the demons and to heal diseases. 2 And He sent them out to proclaim the kingdom of God and to perform healing.
Again, Pay attention...it's important!
Luk 18:32 "For He will be handed over to the Gentiles, and will be mocked and mistreated and spit upon, 33 and after they have scourged Him, they will kill Him; and the third day He will rise again." 34 But they understood none of these things, and the meaning of this statement was hidden from them, and they did not comprehend the things that were said.
SO... We have the disciples sent out for years and preaching the kingdom of God... Yet not a single one taught that Jesus died for your sins...as they understood none of these things!! So what did they TEACH???
Yet... after He has risen what does Jesus do for 40 days???? Talk about his dying for our sins to his disciples... or something else???
Act 1:3 To these He also presented Himself alive after His suffering, by many convincing proofs, appearing to them over a period of forty days and speaking of the things concerning the kingdom of God.
Act 1:6 So when they had come together, they were asking Him, saying, "Lord, is it at this time You are restoring the kingdom to Israel?"
You see.... Jesus dying for our Sins is only about 10% of the things concerning the kingdom of God... Yes very important but not the main focus!!!
Act 8:12 But when they believed Philip preaching the good news about the kingdom of God and the name of Jesus Christ, they were being baptized, men and women alike.
Act 28:23 When they had set a day for Paul, they came to him at his lodging in large numbers; and he was explaining to them by solemnly testifying about the kingdom of God and trying to persuade them concerning Jesus, from both the Law of Moses and from the Prophets, from morning until evening.
Act 28:31 preaching the kingdom of God and teaching concerning the Lord Jesus Christ with all openness, unhindered.
Knowing that Jesus died for your sins is only about 10% of the Gospel... Yet we treat it as if it's 100%. The risen Christ spent 40 days speaking of the things concerning the kingdom of God to his disciples. Do you really think it took that long for them to understand He Died for our sins or did he speak of greater things to come?
Paul
