Summarize what the good news is, find a scripture.

[Ferris Bueller]

These verses do not say the law applies to Gentiles generally, only a handful of sojourners who traveled in the Israeli community who left Egypt.

A.k.a. the people of God. It governed the people of God.
The people of God for whom the law was given, and which condemns the non-people of God, has always been a mixed bag of nationalities.

 

[Grailhunter]

I can tell you which ones I don't have to literally follow. And the reason why. (I'm not a woman, or a priest, etc.)
And yet all the law of Moses is fulfilled and satisfied by faith in Christ and no charge of law breaking is leveled against those who believe in Christ and walk by the Spirit.

You are right....but not literally. By following the two commandments of Christ we satisfy the obedience of the law as a whole....but nothing specific.

 

[Grailhunter]

Remember, nothing changed until 'all be fulfilled'.
There's a condition attached to Jesus' charge that no one break the least of these.

Define fulfilled in respect to the Law.
“For truly I say to you, until heaven and earth pass away, not the smallest letter or stroke shall pass from the Law until all is accomplished.
I will warn you that there is a catch 22 here.

 

[Wrangler]

Well, James certainly does not agree with you.

James 2:8-9

Who was not writing to the Gentiles

James 1
New Living Translation

Greetings from James
1 This letter is from James, a slave of God and of the Lord Jesus Christ.

I am writing to the “twelve tribes”—Jewish believers scattered abroad.

 

[Ferris Bueller]

Who was not writing to the Gentiles

James 1
New Living Translation

Greetings from James
1 This letter is from James, a slave of God and of the Lord Jesus Christ.

I am writing to the “twelve tribes”—Jewish believers scattered abroad.

There is no distinction between Jew and gentile.
Never has been, as I showed you.

 

[Ferris Bueller]

Define fulfilled in respect to the Law.

Satisfied so that no condemnation of law remains.
And I do not mean that in an overall legal sense as when a person is justified by faith.

For example, Jesus is the last and final Passover sacrifice.
Everyone who believes in Christ has that Passover observance applied to their account such that there is no outstanding debt of law regarding the Passover held to them. It is fulfilled, and so the literal letter of the law regarding Passover observance 'disappears' from the law. Yet, it is marked 'satisfied' on every believer's account in heaven. In fact, that's why it 'disappears'. There is no further literal fulfillment required in regard to the law of Passover.

 

[Wrangler]

There is no distinction between Jew and gentile.
Never has been, as I showed you.

What? I just showed you there ALWAYS was a distinction until Christ between Jews and Gentiles. If there was no distinction, then why the big controversy over circumcision, what food to eat and why is James 1:1 specifically writing to the “twelve tribes”—Jewish believers scattered abroad if there was NEVER a distinction?

 

[Ferris Bueller]

What? I just showed you there ALWAYS was a distinction until Christ between Jews and Gentiles.

That division is man made.
Any gentile could join the ranks of the people of God.
Retarded rabbis are the one's who created laws creating the division between gentile and Jew.
But, since those laws are binding, they, too, were nailed to the cross with Jesus.
That is the way that the dividing wall has been removed in Christ.

 

[Ferris Bueller]

why is James 1:1 specifically writing to the “twelve tribes”

You gotta remember that the church was mostly Jewish in the beginning.
Peter's meeting with Cornelius is said to have occurred 10 years after the resurrection.

As I showed you, 'twelve tribes' has always meant Israelite and gentile alike. The gentiles were allowed to join themselves to the people of God and keep the exact same law natural Israelites kept. In fact, they were required to keep it.

Also, not even natural Jews have to be circumcised in this New Covenant. There is not a law of physical circumcision for Jews and no law of physical circumcision for gentiles. The lawful debt of circumcision is paid in full by the circumcision all believers, Jew and gentile alike, receive when they believe in Christ and receive the Holy Spirit. God looks at the believer and says, "I see no violation of the law of circumcision here." There's no need to do physically and literally what is already done in God's eyes.

 

[Wrangler]

That division is man made.

Absolutely not! It was God who chose a people to be Holy. It was God who revealed himself to the Jewish prophets. It was God who wrote the 10 Commandments to his chosen people, who he brought out of the land of Egypt. Jesus is the Jewish Messiah, fulfilling Jewish prophecy.

Our society pushes 'Equality' beyond reason. We are equal in Christ, yes, but not otherwise.

 

[Wrangler]

As I showed you, 'twelve tribes' has always meant Israelite and gentile alike.

You did not show me this. The 'twelve tribes' always and only referred to the children of Jacob (and their descendants). You are confusing rules and exceptions.

God himself said in Ex 20:2 his law was for his chosen people who he lead out of slavery. This is the rule. The exception is the few sojourners who also accompanied them. Exceptions are not equal to general rules.

 

[Grailhunter]

Satisfied so that no condemnation of law remains.
And I do not mean that in an overall legal sense as when a person is justified by faith.

For example, Jesus is the last and final Passover sacrifice.
Everyone who believes in Christ has that Passover observance applied to their account such that there is no outstanding debt of law regarding the Passover held to them. It is fulfilled, and so the literal letter of the law regarding Passover observance 'disappears' from the law. Yet, it is marked 'satisfied' on every believer's account in heaven. In fact, that's why it 'disappears'. There is no further literal fulfillment required in regard to the law of Passover.

No condemnation of law remains
no outstanding debt of the law
literal letter of the law regarding Passover observance disappears from the law
marked satisfied on every believers account in heaven
no literal fulfillment required in regard to the law of Passover.

If you are saying that Christ more or less "took the teeth" out of the law....
And that we do not observe or obey the literal law....

I agree

I just have a shorter explaination
If we believe in Christ and obey His two commandments we honor the fulfilment of all that is in the Old Testament. And the "why" to that is of course the sacrificial death of the Son of God.....
But still the physical letters of the Law cannot change until after the heavens and earth have passed away and and all is fulfilled.
I am thinking that the Mosaic Law is described as eternal --- forever about 50 times in the Old Testament...

 

[Ferris Bueller]

Absolutely not! It was God who chose a people to be Holy. It was God who revealed himself to the Jewish prophets. It was God who wrote the 10 Commandments to his chosen people, who he brought out of the land of Egypt. Jesus is the Jewish Messiah, fulfilling Jewish prophecy.

Our society pushes 'Equality' beyond reason. We are equal in Christ, yes, but not otherwise.

You're not listening.
A gentile has always been able to join into that holy people and become a part of it. In fact, gentiles came out of Egypt with the Israelites.
And God stipulated right from the beginning that the same law is to be for both the natural born Israelite and the foreigner among them.

 

[Wrangler]

You're not listening.
A gentile has always been able to join into that holy people

Appeal to Strawman. No one ever denied people could convert to Judaism. No one ever said there were never non-Hebrews living among Hebrews. The point is that until Jesus there were always distinctions made - and made by God himself as I've shown you several times. In case you missed it, here are some questions you have not answered:

1. If there was no distinction, then why the big controversy over circumcision?
2. If there was no distinction, then why the big controversy over what food to eat?
3. Then why is James 1:1 specifically writing to the “twelve tribes”—Jewish believers scattered abroad if there was NEVER a distinction?

 

[Ferris Bueller]

You did not show me this. The 'twelve tribes' always and only referred to the children of Jacob (and their descendants). You are confusing rules and exceptions.

Even if that were true, which it is not, you are defying what the law itself that says there is to be just one law for natural born Israelite and the gentile among them. There is no law for the Jew, and one for the gentile.

 

[Ferris Bueller]

If there was no distinction, then why the big controversy over circumcision?

Because of stupid men! Not because there is a distinction!

 

[Ferris Bueller]

If there was no distinction, then why the big controversy over what food to eat?

Again, because of stupid men! There is no distinction or controversy over food! One law for both Jew and gentile.

 

[Ferris Bueller]

Then why is James 1:1 specifically writing to the “twelve tribes”—Jewish believers scattered abroad if there was NEVER a distinction?

I said because the church is Jewish at this time. After Cornelius and his family got saved believing gentiles were mixed in with the believing tribes of Israel. We gentiles are nearsighted and think the church has always been gentiles with Jews mixed into us. It wasn't that way in the beginning.

 

[Ferris Bueller]

If we believe in Christ and obey His two commandments we honor the fulfilment of all that is in the Old Testament. And the "why" to that is of course the sacrificial death of the Son of God.....
But still the physical letters of the Law cannot change until after the heavens and earth have passed away and and all is fulfilled.

Well then you haven't read Matthew 5:17-18 carefully enough.

Here's your proof that the fulfillment that Jesus said must occur before any letter can drop from the law has occurred: You don't have to sacrifice an animal for your sin anymore. That shows right there that the fulfillment has occurred.

 

[Ferris Bueller]

I am thinking that the Mosaic Law is described as eternal --- forever about 50 times in the Old Testament...

Everyone who believes in Christ has fulfilled the worship requirements of the law forever.
Passover, for example, didn't go away. It got fulfilled...forever.
Every believer has an eternally kept Passover requirement credited to their account.
Most Christians erroneously think things like the Passover were eternally cast down for them.
No, it was eternally kept for them through the sacrifice of Christ.