KJV The Pure Word of God?

[Michiah-Imla]

Joshua was the leader who dispossessed the nations. Why are you distorting what God's word clearly says about Israel's history?

The original Greek has “Jesus”.

You can cry all you want. The KJV translates the Greek correctly.

 

[praise_yeshua]

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“the wisdom of this world is foolishness with God. For it is written, He taketh the wise in their own craftiness.” (1 Corinthians 3:19)

“Let no man deceive himself. If any man among you seemeth to be wise in this world, let him become a fool, that he may be wise.” (1 Corinthians 3:18)

Someone mockingly stated that KJVO’s quote the KJV and have to resort to explaining words like “concupiscence” in words found in modern translations.

Well that’s because people aren’t educated well these days…

Like I said "concupiscence" is a doctrine. When you put "concupiscence" into any translation, you are injecting doctrine. Not translating.

Concupiscence comes from Latin. From the Vulgate. You have no idea what you're talking about.

 

[praise_yeshua]

The original Greek has “Jesus”.

You can cry all you want. The KJV translates the Greek correctly.

No. It does not. Jesus is a Latinized name. I have no problem with the name of Jesus. However, you can't ignore facts.

There are many Latin renderings in the KJV due to the influence of the Douay–Rheims Bible

 

[praise_yeshua]

Then why should “concupiscence” be explained to such an enlightened population?

Why don't understand that Jesus came from Latin?

You need to be educated yourself. Stop listening to silly KJVOists.

No one needs to understand concupiscence. It doesn't belong in any English translation.

 

[ByGraceThroughFaith]

Paul used the Greek OT itself. We know because of the verses he quoted are almost exclusively from the Greek OT

this is impossible, as the Greek Old Testament, the LXX, is a human TRANSLATION of the Hebrew, and not Inspired by God the Holy Spirit. It is like saying that the Writers of the NT used the KJV OT in their quotes. The Lord Jesus and NT Writers would have used the Hebrew OT.

 

[ByGraceThroughFaith]

The KJV is not the original, you realize that?

 

[ByGraceThroughFaith]

No way, Jose.

you what?

 

[praise_yeshua]

this is impossible, as the Greek Old Testament, the LXX, is a human TRANSLATION of the Hebrew, and not Inspired by God the Holy Spirit. It is like saying that the Writers of the NT used the KJV OT in their quotes. The Lord Jesus and NT Writers would have used the Hebrew OT.

That is your mistake. It is unmistakable. We have Codex Alexandrinus. We know that the NT authors referenced the Greek OT. We know because we have the texts to prove it. I could spends days proving it over and over again but I'll give you a single proof. Prove me wrong...

Act 8:32 The place of the scripture which he read was this, He was led as a sheep to the slaughter; and like a lamb dumb before his shearer, so opened he not his mouth:

Which is a quote of the Greek OT in Isa 53:7

The MT reads....

Isa 53:7 He was oppressed, and he was afflicted, yet he opened not his mouth: he is brought as a lamb to the slaughter, and as a sheep before her shearers is dumb, so he openeth not his mouth.

Notice the issue with gender "her" instead of "him". Notice sheep and lamb reversed......

The Hebrew is unmistakable. So is the Greek source. Luke used the Greek OT in Acts 8:28

YOUR logic fails. You have two choices. Keep believing your lie or change. It is up to you.

During the Advent of our Lord, "Hebrew" was the language of the ruling "elite" and "Pharisees". The Greek OT was the Scripture in the hands of the average believer. That is why the Gentiles easily converted to Christianity. They could read the Scriptures themselves in the Greek language.

I can tell you don't really know the subject. You should spend some time getting to know Christianity before you try to teach others.

 

[ByGraceThroughFaith]

That is your mistake. It is unmistakable. We have Codex Alexandrinus. We know that the NT authors referenced the Greek OT. We know because we have the texts to prove it. I could spends days proving it over and over again but I'll give you a single proof. Prove me wrong...

Act 8:32 The place of the scripture which he read was this, He was led as a sheep to the slaughter; and like a lamb dumb before his shearer, so opened he not his mouth:

Which is a quote of the Greek OT in Isa 53:7

The MT reads....

Isa 53:7 He was oppressed, and he was afflicted, yet he opened not his mouth: he is brought as a lamb to the slaughter, and as a sheep before her shearers is dumb, so he openeth not his mouth.

Notice the issue with gender "her" instead of "him". Notice sheep and lamb reversed......

The Hebrew is unmistakable. So is the Greek source. Luke used the Greek OT in Acts 8:28

YOUR logic fails. You have two choices. Keep believing your lie or change. It is up to you.

During the Advent of our Lord, "Hebrew" was the language of the ruling "elite" and "Pharisees". The Greek OT was the Scripture in the hands of the average believer. That is why the Gentiles easily converted to Christianity. They could read the Scriptures themselves in the Greek language.

I can tell you don't really know the subject. You should spend some time getting to know Christianity before you try to teach others.

I have personally studied this from the Hebrew, LXX and Greek NT, and you don't know what you are talking about!

Mark 4:12,

"That seeing they may see, and not perceive; and hearing they may hear, and not understand; lest at any time they should be converted, and their sins should be forgiven them" (KJV)

Isaiah 6:9-10

"Ye shall hear indeed, but ye shall not understand; and ye shall see indeed, but ye shall not perceive.For the heart of this people has become gross, and their ears are dull of hearing, and their eyes have they closed; lest they should see with their eyes, and hear with their ears, and understand with their heart, and be converted, and I should heal them" (LXX)

Mark does NOT quote from the LXX!

 

[ByGraceThroughFaith]

That is your mistake. It is unmistakable. We have Codex Alexandrinus. We know that the NT authors referenced the Greek OT. We know because we have the texts to prove it. I could spends days proving it over and over again but I'll give you a single proof. Prove me wrong...

Act 8:32 The place of the scripture which he read was this, He was led as a sheep to the slaughter; and like a lamb dumb before his shearer, so opened he not his mouth:

Which is a quote of the Greek OT in Isa 53:7

The MT reads....

Isa 53:7 He was oppressed, and he was afflicted, yet he opened not his mouth: he is brought as a lamb to the slaughter, and as a sheep before her shearers is dumb, so he openeth not his mouth.

Notice the issue with gender "her" instead of "him". Notice sheep and lamb reversed......

The Hebrew is unmistakable. So is the Greek source. Luke used the Greek OT in Acts 8:28

YOUR logic fails. You have two choices. Keep believing your lie or change. It is up to you.

During the Advent of our Lord, "Hebrew" was the language of the ruling "elite" and "Pharisees". The Greek OT was the Scripture in the hands of the average believer. That is why the Gentiles easily converted to Christianity. They could read the Scriptures themselves in the Greek language.

I can tell you don't really know the subject. You should spend some time getting to know Christianity before you try to teach others.

“Finally we may mention again the Old Testament quotations in the New Testament and in various early writers which appear to be derived from a version or versions different from the Septuagint, as well as the old version which it is assumed was revised by Lucian” (F Kenyon, Our Bible and the Ancient Manuscripts, p.111)

“According to Paul Kahle, the non-LXX elements in NT quotations of the OT reflect written Greek targums widely used before the church adopted the LXX as its standard version of the OT (The Cairo Geniza, 2nd ed. [1959], 209 – 64). The mass of variant readings in MSS of the LXX —variants that Kahle uses along with the aberrant text of OT quotations in the NT to prove the existence of Greek targums—present a discernible pattern of development from an archetype, not a hodgepodge of unrelated variants from independent Greek targums. Furthermore, the DSS have shown that many of the variants in the Septuagintal MSS were the result of progressive assimilation to the Hebrew text of the OT, not the result of amalgamation of differing Greek targums utilized by NT writers.” (Zondervan Encyclopedia of the Bible, Vol.V)

Did you know that the earliest LXX that we have in the Greek manuscripts, and quotes by the Church Fathers, include books from the apocrypha Old Testament. Are these also "inspired" by the Holy Spirit?

 

[praise_yeshua]

I have personally studied this from the Hebrew, LXX and Greek NT, and you don't know what you are talking about!

Why are you not dealing with the verse I referenced? I know why. You're moving the goalpost. I am a student of the manuscripts and languages of the Holy Scriptures.

Mark 4:12,

"That seeing they may see, and not perceive; and hearing they may hear, and not understand; lest at any time they should be converted, and their sins should be forgiven them" (KJV)

Isaiah 6:9-10

"Ye shall hear indeed, but ye shall not understand; and ye shall see indeed, but ye shall not perceive.For the heart of this people has become gross, and their ears are dull of hearing, and their eyes have they closed; lest they should see with their eyes, and hear with their ears, and understand with their heart, and be converted, and I should heal them" (LXX)

Mark does NOT quote from the LXX!

There are only a few references in the NT that are not taken from the LXX. You found one from Google and your mistake is trusting what you found.

You're being deceptive. Matthew 13:14-15 is a quote from Isa 6:9-10

Mat 13:14 And in them is fulfilled the prophecy of Esaias, which saith, By hearing ye shall hear, and shall not understand; and seeing ye shall see, and shall not perceive:
Mat 13:15 For this people's heart is waxed gross, and their ears are dull of hearing, and their eyes they have closed; lest at any time they should see with their eyes, and hear with their ears, and should understand with their heart, and should be converted, and I should heal them

The MT reads.

Isa 6:9 And he said, “Go, and say to this people: “‘Keep on hearing, but do not understand; keep on seeing, but do not perceive.’
Isa 6:10 Make the heart of this people dull, and their ears heavy, and blind their eyes; lest they see with their eyes, and hear with their ears, and understand with their hearts, and turn and be healed.”

Notice the problem?

"ears dull" in Matt 13 and "hearts dull" in Isa 6:10

Mark 4:12 is different. You don't know why.... Try again.

 

[ByGraceThroughFaith]

Why are you not dealing with the verse I referenced? I know why. You're moving the goalpost. I am a student of the manuscripts and languages of the Holy Scriptures.




There are only a few references in the NT that are not taken from the LXX. You found one from Google and your mistake is trusting what you found.

You're being deceptive. Matthew 13:14-15 is a quote from Isa 6:9-10

Mat 13:14 And in them is fulfilled the prophecy of Esaias, which saith, By hearing ye shall hear, and shall not understand; and seeing ye shall see, and shall not perceive:
Mat 13:15 For this people's heart is waxed gross, and their ears are dull of hearing, and their eyes they have closed; lest at any time they should see with their eyes, and hear with their ears, and should understand with their heart, and should be converted, and I should heal them

The MT reads.

Isa 6:9 And he said, “Go, and say to this people: “‘Keep on hearing, but do not understand; keep on seeing, but do not perceive.’
Isa 6:10 Make the heart of this people dull, and their ears heavy, and blind their eyes; lest they see with their eyes, and hear with their ears, and understand with their hearts, and turn and be healed.”

Notice the problem?

"ears dull" in Matt 13 and "hearts dull" in Isa 6:10

Mark 4:12 is different. You don't know why.... Try again.

check #330 and you MIGHT learn! I don't Google, it is my own research!

Do you read the LXX in Greek, and the NT and the OT in Hebrew for youself?

 

[ByGraceThroughFaith]

Why are you not dealing with the verse I referenced? I know why. You're moving the goalpost. I am a student of the manuscripts and languages of the Holy Scriptures.




There are only a few references in the NT that are not taken from the LXX. You found one from Google and your mistake is trusting what you found.

You're being deceptive. Matthew 13:14-15 is a quote from Isa 6:9-10

Mat 13:14 And in them is fulfilled the prophecy of Esaias, which saith, By hearing ye shall hear, and shall not understand; and seeing ye shall see, and shall not perceive:
Mat 13:15 For this people's heart is waxed gross, and their ears are dull of hearing, and their eyes they have closed; lest at any time they should see with their eyes, and hear with their ears, and should understand with their heart, and should be converted, and I should heal them

The MT reads.

Isa 6:9 And he said, “Go, and say to this people: “‘Keep on hearing, but do not understand; keep on seeing, but do not perceive.’
Isa 6:10 Make the heart of this people dull, and their ears heavy, and blind their eyes; lest they see with their eyes, and hear with their ears, and understand with their hearts, and turn and be healed.”

Notice the problem?

"ears dull" in Matt 13 and "hearts dull" in Isa 6:10

Mark 4:12 is different. You don't know why.... Try again.

Mark is quoting the Jewish Targum!

 

[ByGraceThroughFaith]

Why are you not dealing with the verse I referenced? I know why. You're moving the goalpost. I am a student of the manuscripts and languages of the Holy Scriptures.




There are only a few references in the NT that are not taken from the LXX. You found one from Google and your mistake is trusting what you found.

You're being deceptive. Matthew 13:14-15 is a quote from Isa 6:9-10

Mat 13:14 And in them is fulfilled the prophecy of Esaias, which saith, By hearing ye shall hear, and shall not understand; and seeing ye shall see, and shall not perceive:
Mat 13:15 For this people's heart is waxed gross, and their ears are dull of hearing, and their eyes they have closed; lest at any time they should see with their eyes, and hear with their ears, and should understand with their heart, and should be converted, and I should heal them

The MT reads.

Isa 6:9 And he said, “Go, and say to this people: “‘Keep on hearing, but do not understand; keep on seeing, but do not perceive.’
Isa 6:10 Make the heart of this people dull, and their ears heavy, and blind their eyes; lest they see with their eyes, and hear with their ears, and understand with their hearts, and turn and be healed.”

Notice the problem?

"ears dull" in Matt 13 and "hearts dull" in Isa 6:10

Mark 4:12 is different. You don't know why.... Try again.

How about Matthew 11:10, and Malachi 3:1?

You are out of your depth here!

 

[praise_yeshua]

“Finally we may mention again the Old Testament quotations in the New Testament and in various early writers which appear to be derived from a version or versions different from the Septuagint, as well as the old version which it is assumed was revised by Lucian” (F Kenyon, Our Bible and the Ancient Manuscripts, p.111)

“According to Paul Kahle, the non-LXX elements in NT quotations of the OT reflect written Greek targums widely used before the church adopted the LXX as its standard version of the OT (The Cairo Geniza, 2nd ed. [1959], 209 – 64). The mass of variant readings in MSS of the LXX —variants that Kahle uses along with the aberrant text of OT quotations in the NT to prove the existence of Greek targums—present a discernible pattern of development from an archetype, not a hodgepodge of unrelated variants from independent Greek targums. Furthermore, the DSS have shown that many of the variants in the Septuagintal MSS were the result of progressive assimilation to the Hebrew text of the OT, not the result of amalgamation of differing Greek targums utilized by NT writers.” (Zondervan Encyclopedia of the Bible, Vol.V)

Did you know that the earliest LXX that we have in the Greek manuscripts, and quotes by the Church Fathers, include books from the apocrypha Old Testament. Are these also "inspired" by the Holy Spirit?

All men have their own agendas. You're using very poor sources in your defense. Zondervan is a joke. The story of the DSS have changed dramatically over the years. The DSS witness to at least three streams of texts. We know the MT is a reconstructed text from the enemies of God. Those that rejected the Lord Jesus Christ and still blaspheme and curse His name.

Do you take instruction for those who blaspheme the Lord Jesus Christ?

The LXX was taken directly from the Hebrew Scriptures.

Yes. I accept the the LXX canon over the late choices by silly reformers.

 

[praise_yeshua]

Mark is quoting the Jewish Targum!

Jewish Targum..... yeah. Right. Not the MT itself?

Which is it? You're all over the place. Why are you ignoring Acts 8:28 and Matthew 13? You know they came from the LXX and you refuse to admit it.

So settled down and make a choice and stick with it....

 

[praise_yeshua]

How about Matthew 11:10, and Malachi 3:1?

You are out of your depth here!

Why do you keep moving? I dismantle your claims you just keep grasping. Google isn't helping you. It is too much information to digest for you. You need experience. You don't have it.

 

[ByGraceThroughFaith]

All men have their own agendas. You're using very poor sources in your defense. Zondervan is a joke. The story of the DSS have changed dramatically over the years. The DSS witness to at least three streams of texts. We know the MT is a reconstructed text from the enemies of God. Those that rejected the Lord Jesus Christ and still blaspheme and curse His name.

Do you take instruction for those who blaspheme the Lord Jesus Christ?

The LXX was taken directly from the Hebrew Scriptures.

Yes. I accept the the LXX canon over the late choices by silly reformers.

You simply don't understand. IF any of the quotes in the New Testament are from the LXX then either the LXX is equally Inspired like the Hebrew Old Testament or the NT quotes from an UNINSPIRED work

 

[praise_yeshua]

How about Matthew 11:10, and Malachi 3:1?

You are out of your depth here!

What Scriptures did the Gentile world use during the early church?

Did they have to learn Hebrew to know the Scriptures? You're just like a KJVOist. You require others to learn another language to get the "Word of God".....

 

[ByGraceThroughFaith]

Why do you keep moving? I dismantle your claims you just keep grasping. Google isn't helping you. It is too much information to digest for you. You need experience. You don't have it.

You do not know what you are talking about. It is complete RUBBISH