The debate on the modern legitimacy of speaking in tongues generally focuses on these 10 questions. For the sake of coherent discussion, I hope to lead the discussion sequentially through each of these questions. Please refrain from commenting on an issue until it is brought up in this hopefully orderly discussion.
(1) Does "Glossai" (tongues) refer only to human languages in 1 Cor. 12 and 14 and Acts?
(2) Is the reference in 1 Cor. 13:1 hyperbolic and therefore not a reference to speaking in tongues as speaking in angelic tongues?
(3) Does the 4-fold pattern in Acts in which speaking in tongues attests one's initial reception of the Holy Spirit mean that Spirit baptism requires the initial evidence of speaking in tongues?
(4) Did the tongues spoken in the household of Cornelius (Acts 10:44-47) and by the "disciples" at Ephesus (19:2, 6) express understandable human languages just as the tongues spoken on the Day of Pentecost did (2:4-6)?
(5) Does 1 Cor. 12:31 imply that prophecy and speaking in tongues are gifts of the Spirit reserved for the chosen few?
(6) Does Paul teach that all speaking in tongues must be interpreted?
(7) Does Paul's command to "strive for spiritual gifts (1 Cor. 12:31; 14:1)," exclude speaking in tongues? What principles should guide our striving for spiritual gifts?
(8) Does 1 Cor. 13:8 imply that speaking in tongues was restricted to the apostolic age or the age during which the New Testament books were written?
(9) Does Paul's identification of speaking in tongues as "a sign for unbelievers (1 Cor. 14:21-22)" imply that modern speaking in tongues is illegitimate?
(10) What, then, are the biblical purposes of speaking in tongues (see 1 Cor. 14:4. 14-15, 31; Rom. 8:26; Eph. 6:18; cp. 6:11-17) and the long-range impact of this gift on site members?
(1) Does "Glossai" (tongues) refer only to human languages in 1 Cor. 12 and 14 and Acts?
(2) Is the reference in 1 Cor. 13:1 hyperbolic and therefore not a reference to speaking in tongues as speaking in angelic tongues?
(3) Does the 4-fold pattern in Acts in which speaking in tongues attests one's initial reception of the Holy Spirit mean that Spirit baptism requires the initial evidence of speaking in tongues?
(4) Did the tongues spoken in the household of Cornelius (Acts 10:44-47) and by the "disciples" at Ephesus (19:2, 6) express understandable human languages just as the tongues spoken on the Day of Pentecost did (2:4-6)?
(5) Does 1 Cor. 12:31 imply that prophecy and speaking in tongues are gifts of the Spirit reserved for the chosen few?
(6) Does Paul teach that all speaking in tongues must be interpreted?
(7) Does Paul's command to "strive for spiritual gifts (1 Cor. 12:31; 14:1)," exclude speaking in tongues? What principles should guide our striving for spiritual gifts?
(8) Does 1 Cor. 13:8 imply that speaking in tongues was restricted to the apostolic age or the age during which the New Testament books were written?
(9) Does Paul's identification of speaking in tongues as "a sign for unbelievers (1 Cor. 14:21-22)" imply that modern speaking in tongues is illegitimate?
(10) What, then, are the biblical purposes of speaking in tongues (see 1 Cor. 14:4. 14-15, 31; Rom. 8:26; Eph. 6:18; cp. 6:11-17) and the long-range impact of this gift on site members?
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