10 Basic Questions about Speaking in Tongues

[Berserk]

The debate on the modern legitimacy of speaking in tongues generally focuses on these 10 questions. For the sake of coherent discussion, I hope to lead the discussion sequentially through each of these questions. Please refrain from commenting on an issue until it is brought up in this hopefully orderly discussion.

(1) Does "Glossai" (tongues) refer only to human languages in 1 Cor. 12 and 14 and Acts?
(2) Is the reference in 1 Cor. 13:1 hyperbolic and therefore not a reference to speaking in tongues as speaking in angelic tongues?
(3) Does the 4-fold pattern in Acts in which speaking in tongues attests one's initial reception of the Holy Spirit mean that Spirit baptism requires the initial evidence of speaking in tongues?
(4) Did the tongues spoken in the household of Cornelius (Acts 10:44-47) and by the "disciples" at Ephesus (19:2, 6) express understandable human languages just as the tongues spoken on the Day of Pentecost did (2:4-6)?
(5) Does 1 Cor. 12:31 imply that prophecy and speaking in tongues are gifts of the Spirit reserved for the chosen few?
(6) Does Paul teach that all speaking in tongues must be interpreted?
(7) Does Paul's command to "strive for spiritual gifts (1 Cor. 12:31; 14:1)," exclude speaking in tongues? What principles should guide our striving for spiritual gifts?
(8) Does 1 Cor. 13:8 imply that speaking in tongues was restricted to the apostolic age or the age during which the New Testament books were written?
(9) Does Paul's identification of speaking in tongues as "a sign for unbelievers (1 Cor. 14:21-22)" imply that modern speaking in tongues is illegitimate?
(10) What, then, are the biblical purposes of speaking in tongues (see 1 Cor. 14:4. 14-15, 31; Rom. 8:26; Eph. 6:18; cp. 6:11-17) and the long-range impact of this gift on site members?

 

[Marilyn C]

I received the gift of speaking in tongues over 60 years ago on a camp in the mountains of New Zealand. I have found that as I daily speak in tongues that I am praising the Lord, and building myself up in the spirit.

Nothing in this world edifies a person, only meditating on the Lord. (1 Cor. 14: 4)

As I am nearly 75 years of age, I can truly testify to the keeping power of the Lord and His Holy Spirit praying through me to give praise to our blessed Lord and Saviour.

regards, Marilyn.

BTW I think the debate on `speaking in tongues` was way back in the `50`s & `60`s. Today the final truth to be clarified in the Body of Christ is where our inheritance is - heaven or earth.

 

[Pearl]

The debate on the modern legitimacy of speaking in tongues generally focuses on these 10 questions? For the sake of coherent discussion, I hope to lead the discussion sequentially through each of these questions. Please refrain from commenting on an issue until it is brought up in this hopefully orderly discussion.

(1) Does "Glossai" (tongues) refer only to human languages in 1 Cor. 12 and 14 and Acts?
(2) Is the reference in 1 Cor. 13:1 hyperbolic and therefore not a reference to speaking in tongues as speaking in angelic tongues?
(3) Does the 4-fold pattern in Acts in which speaking in tongues attests one's initial reception of the Holy Spirit mean that Spirit baptism requires the initial evidence of speaking in tongues?
(4) Did the tongues spoken in the household of Cornelius (Acts 10:44-47) and by the "disciples" at Ephesus (19:2, 6) express understandable human languages just as the tongues spoken on the Day of Pentecost did (2:4-6)?
(5) Does 1 Cor. 12:31 imply that prophecy and speaking in tongues are gifts of the Spirit reserved for the chosen few?
(6) Does Paul teach that all speaking in tongues must be interpreted?
(7) Does Paul's command to "strive for spiritual gifts (1 Cor. 12:31; 14:1)," exclude speaking in tongues? What principles should guide our striving for spritual gifts?
(8) Does 1 Cor. 13:8 imply that speaking in tongues was restricted to the apostolic age or the age during which the New Testament books were written?
(9) Does Paul's identification of speaking in tongues as "a sign for unbelievers (1 Cor. 14:21-22)" imply that modern speaking in tongues is illegitimate?
(10) What, then, are the biblical purposes of speaking in tongues (see 1 Cor. 14:4. 14-15, 31; Rom. 8:26; Eph. 6:18; cp. 6:11-17) and the long-range impact of this gift on site members?

I have never considered any of those questions. I just accepted the gift.

 

[Naomanos]

Not all of us Christians speak in tongues and that is okay too!

 

[Behold]

(9) Does Paul's identification of speaking in tongues as "a sign for unbelievers (1 Cor. 14:21-22)"

?

That verse says the signs are for the JEWS.

Not the "unbelievers"

"the JEWS REQUIRE A SIGN", AND "TONGUES ARE FOR A SIGN".

So, lets get that right as it really matters when trying to understand the difference between a "prayer language", and "the GIFT of a Foreign Language", that you have not learned, unless God give you the "gift" of this "TONGUE"...= "Gift of Tongues".

There is a "prayer language" that is for the edification of the Believer.
There is the "gift of a foreign language" that is the Spiritual Gift, one of 9, that is the "gift of Tongues".

In Acts 2, Peter was given this gift and the verse reads, "and we heard HIM, in OUR OWN LANGUAGE"..

See that? That is Peter speaking foreign languages....= "the GIFT of Tongues."

That is not what a Charismatic is doing, that they think is this gift.
They, and any believer who does THAT, is using a self edifying: Prayer language, which is not one of the 9 Spiritual Gifts.

 

[Tommy Cool]

That verse says the signs are for the JEWS.

Not the "unbelievers"

"the JEWS REQUIRE A SIGN", AND "TONGUES ARE FOR A SIGN".

So, lets get that right as it really matters when trying to understand the difference between a "prayer language", and "the GIFT of a Foreign Language", that you have not learned, unless God give you the "gift" of this "TONGUE"...= "Gift of Tongues".

There is a "prayer language" that is for the edification of the Believer.
There is the "gift of a foreign language" that is the Spiritual Gift, one of 9, that is the "gift of Tongues".

In Acts 2, Peter was given this gift and the verse reads, "and we heard HIM, in OUR OWN LANGUAGE"..

See that? That is Peter speaking foreign languages....= "the GIFT of Tongues."

That is not what a Charismatic is doing, that they think is this gift.
They, and any believer who does THAT, is using a self edifying: Prayer language, which is not one of the 9 Spiritual Gifts.

Dragging a word out of context across multiple scripture ...is irresponsible. Keeping words within their respective context is maintaining the integrity of the Bible. You cannot apply a situation based on one word to a completely different situation.

Additionally: it's not a gift, It is a manifestation (showing forth) of the gift of holy spirit, given at the new birth

 

[Behold]

situation.

Additionally: it's not a gift,

It's the "gift of Tongues'.

""GIFT."""

"Spiritual GIFT".. "Of tongues".

Use a bible next time, Tommy, as your commentary is junk.
Throw it away.

 

[Deborah_]

(1) Does "Glossai" (tongues) refer only to human languages in 1 Cor. 12 and 14 and Acts?
(2) Is the reference in 1 Cor. 13:1 hyperbolic and therefore not a reference to speaking in tongues as speaking in angelic tongues?

(4) Did the tongues spoken in the household of Cornelius (Acts 10:44-47) and by the "disciples" at Ephesus (19:2, 6) express understandable human languages just as the tongues spoken on the Day of Pentecost did (2:4-6)?

These are all basically the same question.
Tongues recognisable as known languages are specifically mentioned only in Acts 2. As far as other tongues are concerned, how would one know if it was a human language or an angelic one? There are thousands of languages in the world today, and many more that have gone extinct over the centuries. If I speak in a tongue, and no-one close enough to hear me recognises it, it could still be a human language understandable to someone, either on the other side of the world or in the past. I Corinthians 13:1 doesn't really answer the question, because Paul could be speaking hyperbolically (perhaps the Corinthians were actually boasting that their unrecognised tongues were "angelic" and therefore "superior"!).
Most tongues are not understood naturally by those who hear them - that's why interpretation is needed. As to whether they are "human" or "angelic", I don't see that it matters.

 

[Berserk]

(1) The tongues spoken in Acts 2 include languages recognizable to some of the the observers. Peter says that Cornelius' household "received the Holy Spirit just as we have (10:47)." But this does not necessarily imply that Cornelius' household spoke in recognizable human languages (10:46). Indeed, as far as we know, their tongues and the tongues spoken by the Ephesian "disciples" (19:2, 6) were neither understood nor interpreted.

"Tongues" in Greek need not mean "human languages"; it can mean "a secret "language" or an "expression" which is strange and obscure and needs explanation" often by a "prophet." For pagan Greek examples, see TDNT, Kittle, ed., vol I, p. 720. The Corinthians speak in uninterpreted tongues in church with outsiders present. Thus, those tongues are of the flesh, and so, do not likely express human languages.
Peter identifies the tongues expressed in Acts 2 as prophecy (2:17) because the human languages spoken are recognized. But the tongues spoken at Ephesus are distinguished from prophecy (19:6).

There is no reason to suppose that, apart from the unique outpouring at Pentecost, the tongues spoken by first-century Christians were any different than modern speaking in tongues. Here are just 3 of many examples of modern Pentecostal tongues expressing human languages:
(1) Dennis Balcomb was visiting a Pentecostal church near Los Angeles. A message in tongues in Hebrew was interpreted by the pastor's wife, who knew no Hebrew, and called Balcomb to evangelize Communist China. A visiting American Jew confirmed the accuracy of this Hebrew message. Balcomb's efforts led to mass conversion of millions of Chinese who then formed charismatic house churches.
(2) A while ago, I met the pastor who replaced me at my United Methodist Church. I mentioned my Pentecostal background and he smiled and said that when he was Sprit baptized in a prayer meeting, he praised God in other tongues in Korean, a fact confirmed by a Korean Christian present. (3) In a Saskatchewan Pentecostal church another pastor's wife interpreted a message in tongues as reassuring her that her daughter trying to leave an African region where Swahili was spoken had safely made it out and would soon return home. An African member who knew Swahili confirmed that this message was spoken in Swahili.
I grew up in a Canadian Pentecostal church and, based on decades of observation, I have concluded that most messages in tongues don't express human languages. Some of these are Spirit-inspired and others are of the flesh just as in first-century Corinth. In my next planned post, I will address question (2) about Paul's teaching on the possibility of speaking "tongues of angels."

 

[Tommy Cool]

It's the "gift of Tongues'.

""GIFT."""

"Spiritual GIFT".. "Of tongues".

Use a bible next time, Tommy, as your commentary is junk.
Throw it away.

Sooooo I found me a Bible ….this is a great book…. I wish I had looked into this before.

Anyhow …this is what I found.


In chapters 12, 13, &14 of I Corinthians the word GIFTS has been added four times by translators …..12:1, as well as 13:2, 14:1 & 14:12. These should be deleted or crossed out in your Bible, as they are not in the original text…. and not well supplied in these verses.

1Co 12:1 Now concerning spiritual [gifts], brethren, I would not have you ignorant.

the word “spiritual” in verse 1 is the Greek word (pneumatikos) meaning “that which belongs to, is determined by, influenced by, or proceeds from the spirit” (spiritual matters).

12:1 should read Now concerning spiritual matters brethren, I would not have you ignorant.

So, God wants us to be informed (not ignorant) of spiritual matters, which could include gifts …but we have to wait to see what He is referring to.

1Co 12:2 Ye know that ye were Gentiles, carried away unto these dumb idols, even as ye were led.

1Co 12:3 Wherefore I give you to understand, that no man speaking by the Spirit of God calleth Jesus accursed: and that no man can say that Jesus is the Lord, but by the Holy Ghost.

1Co 12:4 Now there are diversities distribution of gifts, but the same Spirit.
A literal understanding of verse 4 would be: “Through the choice or option of God, there are gifts given to man.”

Well …look at that…. it does talk about gifts…..What gifts has God given?

There are seven (7) gifts given to the “Church of God, the Body of Christ”

→ (“holy spirit” “the gift” given at new birth…Act 2:38, Rom 10:9)

→(“gifts {plural} of healing” because every healing is a gift, but it is still a manifestation thereof …1Co 12:9).

→(“5 gift ministries” listed in Ephesians Eph 4:11) these 5 gift ministries listed in 4:11 are gifts of service on a horizontal level given to those who are fully committed to serving Gods people.


1Co 12:5 and there are differences of administrations, but the same Lord.

1Co 12:6 And there are diversities of operations, but it is the same God which worketh all in all.



1Co 12:7 But the manifestation of the Spirit is given to every man to profit withal.

The word “but” is a contrasting conjunction that sets in contrast that which precedes it … verses 4-6 was dealing with gifts, but now it’s changed from gifts to → the manifestation of the spirit

The word manifestation in the Greek is phanerôsis meaning “to be visible,” “bring to light,” “or open to sight” “to show forth in the sense world”…. What is it that we are to bring to light? Verse 7 says the spirit. Verse 7 further goes on to say that it is given to every man (all inclusive) every person (who is born again of God) to profit withal.

What’s the difference between gift and manifestation. A gift is individually given, and you do not have it unless someone gives it to you. A manifestation is an evidence, a showing forth of something you already have.

One more verse for clarification

1Co 12:11 But all these worketh that one and the selfsame Spirit, dividing to every man severally as he will.

Some say the words “severely as he will” are referring to “as God wills”. If that were the case then God just contradicted Himself from verse 7 where He stated “is given to every man”... Furthermore the word severely is the Greek word idia from idios meaning “ones own”. Of the 114 times the word idios is used in the Bible, this is the only place it is translated severely. Usually translated “one’s own” “his own” “your own”.

By using the correct rendering of this word idios, verse 11 would read “dividing (distributing) to every man his own, as he (the man) will”

It is up to us which of the manifestation we operate. All 9 are available to every believer…. but it depends on our attitude of believing.

 

[Behold]

In chapters 12, 13, &14 of I Corinthians the word GIFTS has been added four times by translators …..12:1, as well as 13:2, 14:1 & 14:12. These should be deleted or crossed out in your Bible, as they are not in the original text….

Please do not pretend to be a Greek Scholar, as you do not read or speak Koine Green, regarding any type of Fluency level that allows you to interpret any Greek Text.
So, your point of view, is not based on your ability, but its based on those who have told you what to THINK, and they lied to you.

Im not going to......i'll tell you the truth.

So, here is the truth.....there is no "original" Text. No EXTANT Original Greek Text, exists.
So, when someone tells you, "the original Greek" says......they just LIED TO YOU, as there is no such thing, Tommy C.

THere are at least 30 complete Greek Texts, and maybe 4-5 are used to create bibles.

So, lets stay with the BIBLE, and get away from all the phoniness and nonsense that is related to people trying to correct the BIBLE with "originals" that they could not read, if such a thing existed, and it does not..

Look again..

That NEW TESTAMENT says the signs are for the JEWS.

= "the JEWS REQUIRE A SIGN", AND "TONGUES ARE FOR A SIGN".

So, lets get that right as it really matters when trying to understand the difference between a "prayer language", and "the GIFT of a Foreign Language", that you have not learned. God can give you the "gift" of this "TONGUE"...= "Gift of Tongues", if there is a need for it, in Ministry.
its not given so that you can try to impress your friends, Tommy C.

There is a "prayer language" that is for the edification of the Believer.
There is the "gift of a foreign language" that is the Spiritual Gift, one of 9, that is the "gift of Tongues".

In Acts 2, Peter was given this gift and the verse reads, "and we heard HIM, (Peter) in OUR OWN LANGUAGE"..

See that? That is Peter speaking foreign languages....= "the GIFT of Tongues."

That is not what a Charismatic is doing, that they think is this gift.

And one more thing, Tommy C.
Paul said to covet the best Gift, and that is not #9 on the bottom of the list... = "the gift of Tongues".

 

[Berserk]

Tommy Cool: "In chapters 12, 13, &14 of I Corinthians the word GIFTS has been added four times by translators …..12:1, as well as 13:2, 14:1 & 14:12. These should be deleted or crossed out in your Bible, as they are not in the original text…. and not well supplied in these verses.
1Co 12:1 Now concerning spiritual [gifts], brethren, I would not have you ignorant. the word “spiritual” in verse 1 is the Greek word (pneumatikos) meaning “that which belongs to, is determined by, influenced by, or proceeds from the spirit” (spiritual matters).

On the contrary, "charisma" (Greek for "gift") occurs in all ancient Greek manuscripts of 1 Cor. 12:4, 9, 28, 30, and 31.
In 12:4 and 31 "charisma" includes all spiritual gifts, including speaking in tongues! Duh not cool!


T

 

[Tommy Cool]

Im not going to......i'll tell you the truth.

So, here is the truth.....there is no "original" Text. No EXTANT Original Greek Text, exists.
So, when someone tells you, "the original Greek" says......they just LIED TO YOU, as there is no such thing, Tommy C.

THere are at least 30 complete Greek Texts, and maybe 4-5 are used to create bibles.

So, lets stay with the BIBLE, and get away from all the phoniness and nonsense that is related to people trying to correct the BIBLE with "originals" that they could not read, if such a thing existed, and it does not..

Your argument is a strawman. If no Greek MMS include the word gift in them, it is axiomatic that the word was not in the originals….But you knew what I meant, and your attempt to discredit me is a pretty cheesy way to skirt the truth. You are welcome to slam me all day long …which I know is an inferiority complex….because I know despite what you say…. the truth still stands.

See the difference between you and me is…. I never want to be so arrogant that I ignore the truth if I am wrong, because my goal is to be in alignment and harmony with God…. and I will leave the ending of this as a relative ellipsis …

hat NEW TESTAMENT says the signs are for the JEWS.

= "the JEWS REQUIRE A SIGN", AND "TONGUES ARE FOR A SIGN".

to who? not to them that believe, but to them that believe not: Which was predominantly Gentiles in the group.
Have you even read the context of both of those scripture 1Co 1:22, 1Co 14:22

So, lets get that right as it really matters when trying to understand the difference between a "prayer language", and "the GIFT of a Foreign Language", that you have not learned. God can give you the "gift" of this "TONGUE"...= "Gift of Tongues", if there is a need for it, in Ministry.
its not given so that you can try to impress your friends, Tommy C.

There is a "prayer language" that is for the edification of the Believer.
There is the "gift of a foreign language" that is the Spiritual Gift, one of 9, that is the "gift of Tongues".

In Acts 2, Peter was given this gift and the verse reads, "and we heard HIM, (Peter) in OUR OWN LANGUAGE"..

See that? That is Peter speaking foreign languages....= "the GIFT of Tongues."

That is not what a Charismatic is doing, that they think is this gift.

And one more thing, Tommy C.
Paul said to covet the best Gift, and that is not #9 on the bottom of the list... = "the gift of Tongues".

It truly amazes me at the stuff that people come up with when they have no idea what they are talking about. And you really have no idea when it comes to tongues. I don’t mean to be critical ….but you don’t. Do you just make stuff up as you go?...I am almost embarrassed for you.

And to insinuate that tongues is not important because of where it lands in order …which is #8 not #9 is seriously lame. Something has to be first and something has to be last.

And one more thing.... Paul also said….

forbid not to speak with tongues…..and…. I thank my God, I speak with tongues more than ye all:

But I will concede ….Walking in the absolute Love of God is a more excellent way.

 

[Berserk]

There is no reason to claim that 1 Cor. 13:1 has a hyperbolic character, so that "speaking in tongues of angels" is not meant to be a literal possibility. Only 13:2 is hyperbolic: "And if I understand all mysteries and all knowledge." Indeed, we know from ancient Jewish sources like first-century rabbi, Yohanan ben Zakkai and the Jewish book The Testament of Job that Jews considered speaking and understanding angelic tongues a genuine possibility. So Paul believes that when "glossai" (= "tongues") do not express to human languages, they can express angelic language.

In fact, this insight is confirmed by 1 Corinthians 14:12, which is normally mistranslated: "since you are eager for spiritual gifts." A literal translation reads instead, "since you are zealots for spirts (Greek: "pneuma") and "spirits" is an alternative term to designate angels (e. g. Hebrews 1:7). So Paul and the Corinthians believe that prphetic gifts and speaking in tongues can be angelically inspired. The Shepherd of Hermas provides the only other Christian description of the operation of spiritual gifts in public worship and it teaches the same thing (quoting Hermas Mandates 11:9):
"When a man who has the divine Spirit comes into a meeting of righteous people who have the faith of the divine Spirit and intercession is made to God from the assembly of those people, then THE ANGEL OF THE PROPHETIC SPIRIT RESTS ON HIM and fills the man, and the man...speaks to the congregation as God wills."
So if you ever wondered whether angels communicate with and through you, consider the possibility that angels may at times guide what you say when you speak in tongues.

 

[Tommy Cool]

On the contrary, "charisma" (Greek for "gift") occurs in all ancient Greek manuscripts of 1 Cor. 12:4, 9, 28, 30, and 31.
In 12:4 and 31 "charisma" includes all spiritual gifts, including speaking in tongues! Duh not cool!

If you had read what I wrote….post 10 you would have seen that I covered verse 4 & 9

V28 & 30 still refers to gifts of healing.

And v30 refers to all including some of the gift ministries in 28

And 31 does not cover gifts of tongues neither does verse 4 .... you made that up... it doesn't say that.... it changes in verse 7 from gifts to manifestation.

 

[quietthinker]

10 Basic Questions about Speaking in Tongues
One basic answer....
When God enables you to speak in a different language for his reason(s)....you will.
I wonder if it surprised Balaam's donkey.....let alone Balaam?

 

[Angelina]

Dragging a word out of context across multiple scripture ...is irresponsible. Keeping words within their respective context is maintaining the integrity of the Bible. You cannot apply a situation based on one word to a completely different situation.

Additionally: it's not a gift, It is a manifestation (showing forth) of the gift of holy spirit, given at the new birth

If it is given to you freely by the Holy Spirit, it is a gift. The gift manifested as a sign to unbelievers.

 

[Berserk]

Tommy Cool: "And 31 does not cover gifts of tongues neither does verse 4 .... you made that up... it doesn't say that.... it changes in verse 7 from gifts to manifestation."

No, the use of the phrase "varieties of gifts" in 12: 4 sets up Paul's list of "gifts" in 12:7-10 and 12:28-20. The shift in terminology from "gifts" to "manifestations" in 12:7 does not change this fact because "gifts" are manifestations of the Spirit.

12:31 picks up on the gifts listed in 28 and 29. The phrase "greater gifts" (charismata) contrasts with the lesser gifts listed in the chapter. So the reference to "the gifts of healing" does not negate the status of the other items in the lists as gifts. 14:1 picks up on 12:31 and makes it clear that prophecy is included among "the greater gifts." in 12:31. So the fact that 14:31 now refers to "greater spiritual gifts" as "pneumatica: (spiritual things") is irrelevant. Your logic absurdly assumes that Paul would urge us to "strive for the greater gifts" without telling us what some of those gifts are! In 14:1, 1,5 makes it clear that prophecy is among "the greater gift," but adds that speaking in tongues is just as great if it is interpreted: "One who prophesies IS GREATER THAN one who speaks in tongues, UNLESS someone interprets

 

[Berserk]

(3) Does the 4-fold pattern in Acts in which speaking in tongues attests one's initial reception of the Holy Spirit mean that Spirit baptism requires the initial evidence of speaking in tongues?

In 3 of the 4 initial receptions of the Spirit in Acts, it is accompanied by speaking in tongues (2:4; 10:44-47; 19:1-6). In the 4th case (in Samaria), Simon the Magician is so impressed by what he sees that he offers Peter money for the ability to bestow the Spirit through laying on hands (8:18).
So Simon probably witnessed speaking in tongues as in the other 3 cases. This 4-fold pattern is the basis for the classic Pentecostal position that speaking in tongues is the unique initial evidence for Spirit baptism. Pentecostals reinforce this case by citing Mark 16:17 in support of tongues as "sign" of the true believer: "These signs shall follow those who believe. They shall...speak with new tongues."
Perhaps Paul has speaking in tongues in mind when he reminds the Corinthians that their initial reception of the Spirt when he preached the Gospel to them was accompanied by "a demonstration of the Spirit and of power (1 Cor. 2:4-5)."

Luke never distinguishes the initial regenerating work of the Spirit from a later Spirit baptism evidenced by tongues. Indeed, Luke considers these outpourings of tongues as initial receptions of the Spirit. So the tongues speakers in Cornelius' household are described as "those who received the Holy Spirit (10:47)" and the tongues spoken by the Ephesian "disciples" are the upshot of Paul's question, "Did you receive the Holy Spirit when you became believers (19:2-6)?" Thus, evangelicals who lack interest in speaking in tongues are disrespecting God's Word.

But is speaking in tongues essential for Spirit baptism? Well, most of the early converts were Jews, proselytes, and god-fearers who attended the local synagogue and the ancient rabbis taught that the Holy Spirit IS the Spirit of prophecy. So ecstatic speech would be expected to justify a claim to have received the Spirit. But Paul expands the doctrine of the Holy Spirit to include much more than prophecy and that opens the door for other experiences of "power" as "demonstrations" of the indwelling Spirit. What must not be abandoned is the expectation of an experience of power accompanying one's initial reception of the Holy Spirit:

"I will come to you, if the Lord wills, and I will find out not the [God-] talk of these arrogant people, but their power. For the kingdom of God dpends not on [Gpd-] talk, but on power (1 Cor.4:19-20)."

 

[Dropship]

Paul had no problem with people talking tongues, but he also said he'd prefer them to preach-
"I would like every one of you to speak in tongues, but I would rather have you preach" (1 Corinthians 14:5)
"If the whole church speaks in tongues, won't a newcomer think you're out of your minds?" (1 Corinthians 14:24)

and gently reminded them-
"Unless you speak intelligible words with your tongue, how will anyone understand what you're saying, you'll be speaking into air" (1 Corinthians 14:9)

And said he'd be useless if he tongue-spoke-
"Now, brothers, if I come to you and speak in tongues, what good will I be to you?" (1 Corinthians 14:6)
"If you speak in a tongue, how can anyone say "Amen" since he doesn't know what you're saying?" (1 Corinthians 14:16)

In context therefore, he seemed to be suggesting tongue-speaking should only be done in private at home rather than in public.
The bottom line is that tongue-speakers are disobeying Paul, making them candidates for the naughty step..
"...I would rather have you preach" (1 Corinthians 14:5)