Marriage-Divorce-Remarriage is not Adultery

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Episkopos

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So Richard, just so there is no misunderstanding, are you saying and teaching that God has approved for people to get divorced for any reasons, even if adultery never occurred in the marriage? Yes or No? In other words, are you saying that God approves ALL divorces, NO MATTER what circumstances? Yes or No?

And Richard, where exactly in Bible does it show where God teaches that people can get a divorce if adultery has not occurred within the marriage? Deut 24 doesn't talk about it, so where in the New Testament does God talk about it?

Thank you.


God bless.



Not true!!! God did not divorce anyone, they divorced him. Big difference.

Malachi 2:16: “I hate divorce, says the LORD God of Israel.”

God bless.



Are you saying Job was in healthy and balanced mind when he questioned God and wished he was dead and would die? Yes or No? Job was suicidal, are suicidal people of good and sound mind? Yes or No?

And did the world learn anything from Job during his time of being suicidal? Yes or No?

God bless.



What "spiritual truth" have I rejected? Tell me.

Secondly, you and many others have personally attacked my character, torn me down, told others how bad and evil person I am, I have been called Satan and a Devil follower on this forum by some people, yet never I have attacked anyone or called them evil. Now tell me, who is producing the fruit and who is not? And remember I am a person with feelings, and it hurts when someone continues to accuse me of being Satan.

I believe and teach that Jesus is Lord, Saviour, God, Messiah and the Lamb of God and only through Christ are we saved, Him being our complete Saviour. I believe and teach the Gospel of justification, sanctification, righteousness and salvation by faith and grace alone and that we are credited and imputed Jesus' perfection and righteousness as a free gift. I believe and teach that the blood of the Lamb washes away our sins. Now tell me, is there any truth in what I believe and say and teach?

I sincerely love you and all the others who have attacked me and accused me of being Satan and I forgive you all.

God bless.



So what advice do you give to all the millions of Christian people in the world who are mentally ill? That every single one of them should keep silent about Jesus and never share their beliefs and experiences about Jesus?

I have traveled around Australia and preached the Good News in many different places. The last place there were over 100 people who heard me share the Gospel and many came to the front in the end to give their hearts to Jesus. Do you believe God wants me to immediately stop sharing Jesus and the Gospel with everyone? Yes or No?

I have been asked by many people to share my testimony and how my life was before I knew Jesus and how I came to love and accept and trust in Jesus as my Lord and Saviour. Even Bruce Marchiano who played Jesus in the Matthew and Acts Christian DVDs has asked me for my permission to use my Testimony in his ministry! Bruce heard about my Testimony from someone and personally contacted me about it. Do you believe it was wrong off me to share my Testimony with Bruce and others and wrong of them to use my Testimony which talks about how I came to understand the Gospel in Jesus and how I came to embrace Christ as my Lord and Saviour.

SO tell me Episkopos, should I immediately stop sharing my Testimony with others, even kids who are experimenting with drugs and gangs etc, and should I immediately stop sharing the Gospel with others? Is that God's will for my life do you claim?

Do you believe I should immediately remove myself from this Christian forum and any other Christian forum because I have a mental illness?

And should I immediately remove my Testimony from my website and immediately delete my whole website because I have a mental illness?

http://www.biblejesu...g/about-me.html

God bless.

...speaking out your testimony and thanksgiving to God are good for anyone to share. Putting yourself in the judges chair and looking down on others who don't have the same problems as you...is pride. There is a difference between humbly sharing what God has done and putting yourself forward as a teacher of the brethren.
 

richard79408

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Truthseeker, greetngs from sunny Texas,

you stated--So Richard, just so there is no misunderstanding, are you saying and teaching that God has approved for people to get divorced for any reasons, even if adultery never occurred in the marriage?

Let's try to get the language in a more settled situation.
God gave the ideal of "marriage" to all men when in the garden there were only two people.
I can find one place in scripture when God commanded the Jews to just "put away" their wives--but not to give them the bill of divorcement.

What God has done--did do just for the Jewish people who were at Mt. Sinai and their descendants--is gave laws regulating divorce, that is a putting a way and the giving of the bill of divorcement when it occurs.
In the garden there was no sin--but in the land by the time of Mt.Sinai--God gave this law--Complete Jewish Version is helpful here--

Deu 24:1 "Suppose a man marries a woman and consummates the marriage but later finds her displeasing, because he has found her offensive in some respect. He writes her a divorce document, gives it to her and sends her away from his house.
Deu 24:2 She leaves his house, goes and becomes another man's wife;
Deu 24:3 but the second husband dislikes her and writes her a get, gives it to her and sends her away from his house; or the second husband whom she married dies.
Deu 24:4 In such a case her first husband, who sent her away, may not take her again as his wife, because she is now defiled. It would be detestable to Adonai, and you are not to bring about sin in the land Adonai your God is giving you as your inheritance.


Note--in verse one--kjv--because he hath found some uncleanness in her: then let him write her a bill of divorcement, and give it in her hand, and send her out of his house.
Here, the reason is not Adultery--it for some uncleanness--but the man gives her the bill of divorcement and sends her out of his house{our meaning today for divorce} All are free to remarry

Now--this is done again in verse 3-- And if the latter husband hate her.
Here the husband just didn't like her--but He is also going to give the bill of divorcement--and send her out of his house. The reason can and will be anythingand everything but Adultery.

Here is where we tend to get off track--This law was never ever given to me, to you or to anyone living today.

Deu 5:1 Then — Moshe called to all Isra'el and said to them, "Listen, Isra'el, to the laws and rulings which I am announcing in your hearing today, so that you will learn them and take care to obey them.
Deu 5:2 Adonai our God made a covenant with us at Horev.
Deu 5:3
Adonai did not make this covenant with our fathers, but with us — with us, who are all of us here alive today.


Anytime man today takes Deut 24:1-4 which includes Matt 19:9 and attempt to apply them to anyone living today under any circumstances--is attempting to force folks to obey a law that never ever brought life but death..Not a good deal.

you asked--Yes or No? In other words, are you saying that God approves ALL divorces, NO MATTER what circumstances? Yes or No?

I can tell you what the scriptures tell all of us--God does not approve of divorce but when it happens God in giving the Mosaic law regulated it for His people only.


You need to stop and think about who did regulate marriages and divorces in the Gentile world then, and now..
Now, here in America, who has God given authority to oversee marriages divorces and remarriages today? It is most certainly not the church I am a member of--nor is it the church you are a member of.
There is only one church--the RCC church who makes this claim and even today they charge you money--not for a divorce but for an annulment--so you can be free to remarry.. But starting with the council of Trent they gave themselves that authority--which in term gives us the traditional view of MDR today. Totally man made and for profit.

And Richard, where exactly in Bible does it show where God teaches that people can get a divorce if adultery has not occurred within the marriage? Deut 24 doesn't talk about it, so where in the New Testament does God talk about it?

Again, for those outside Christ--it just does not matter--They are governed by God's moral law of sin and of death--not the law of Christ.


And, truthseeker--I am sorry but you are going to have to learn how to define Adultery in the biblical sense--not the man made one that 180 degrees out of the teaching of scripture that men use Matt 19:9 to make.
Deu 22:22 "If a man is found sleeping with a woman who has a husband, both of them must die — the man who went to bed with the woman and the woman too. In this way you will expel such wickedness from Isra'el.

Now, using Jewish law which does not work today--in Deut 24:1-4--a woman has been married twice and divorced for reasons other than adultery--
She remarries for the third time.
She is not guilty of biblical adultery everytime she has sex with her husband..

Now being married to the third man--she has sexual relationshpwith another man and is caught.
Under Jewish law--the man sends her out of his house--where she is then stoned to death.


God has never authorized a "divorce" for His people in the case of Adultery.


So--When anyone today claims that when one is married, divorced and remarried and it was not for adultery--everytime they have sex they are committing adultery--is quite frankly, the teaching of demons--seeking to control who can and cannot remarry.

The bible--never under the Old Covenant for the Jewish People authorize a divorce for adultery.
Under the New Covenant--which did not begin with the birth of Jesus Matt 1:1 but when His will for redeeming mankind was given 50 days after His death on the cross--does not address this.
And, when the good news went forth in the book of Acts--MDR is never addressed--because they are not accountable for the law of Christ--they, the world is not in covenant relationship with God and thus are judged by God by His Moral Law of Sin and of Death.

At no point in man's time from the Mt. Sinai account till today has God gave or made commands for men not in covenant relationship with Him.

So, why should we do so today? Do we know something that God does not know? I do not so believe.
Richard
 

TruthSeeker2012

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...speaking out your testimony and thanksgiving to God are good for anyone to share. Putting yourself in the judges chair and looking down on others who don't have the same problems as you...is pride. There is a difference between humbly sharing what God has done and putting yourself forward as a teacher of the brethren.

You have judged my heart falsely Episkopos, I am not a judgmental or proud person at all and God knows my heart you do not. Ironically, it's you who are guilty of the things you accuse me off.

Just because I challenge and disagree with some of your doctrines Episkopos, doesn't mean I am judging and condemning you and proud.

If you can show me anything I teach that is in error using God's Holy Scripture, I always will humbly listen, and alter my beliefs if I am shown I am wrong.

God bless.

...So, why should we do so today? Do we know something that God does not know? I do not so believe.
Richard

Thank you Richard for sharing your beliefs with us.

God bless.
 

richard79408

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Greetings from sunny Texas,

I need to explain my answer to logabe given below
logabe, on 24 March 2012 - 08:16 AM, said:
God is a divorcee, and Israel is His ex-wife (Jer. 3:8).
This part below

Yes But if you note--God did it according the law in Deut 24:1-4 and Not as in the violation of the law in Matt 19:9

From the Complete Jewish Bible ---
Jer 3:8 I saw that even though backsliding Isra'el had committed adultery, so that I had sent her away and given her a divorce document, unfaithful Y'hudah her sister was not moved to fear — instead she too went and prostituted herself.

Jer 3:9 The ease with which Isra'el prostituted herself defiled the land, as she committed adultery with stones and with logs.

Note that it is God and that the adultery is spritural..but still adultery.

Now--as a part of the law that God gave to man regarding marriage and divorce and remarrige--

Deu 24:3 but the second husband dislikes her and writes her a get, gives it to her and sends her away from his house; or the second husband whom she married dies.
kjv--Deu 24:3 And if the latter husband hate her, and write her a bill of divorcement, and giveth it in her hand, and sendeth her out of his house; or if the latter husband die, which took her to be his wife;

What Jer 3:8 and Deut 24:3 have in common that is not found in Matt 19:9 are the "lawful requirements of a divorce being met.

Jer 3:8--I had put her away and given her a bill of divorcement,

Deut 24:3-and write her a bill of divorcement, and giveth it in her hand, and sendeth her out of his house;

Now Matt 19:9-- shall put away his wife, except it be for fornication, and shall marry another,

One cannot help but note that in Matt 19:3--God's law for divorce is not present--only the putting away--casting out, abandoning and deserting the wife is present in all three texts.

Now--here is the biblical defination of Adultery--

Deu 22:22 If a man be found lying with a woman married to an husband, then they shall both of them die, both the man that lay with the woman, and the woman: so shalt thou put away evil from Israel.

Perhaps you have also noticed what Jer 3: 8 and Deut 24:3 do not have in common.

In Deut 24:3 if a Jewish man simply hates his wife--in other words for any reason save adultery--the Jewish man can by law divorce his wife by giving her a bill of divorcement and sending her away.

Thus all involved in the remarriage, the ex husband, the woman and the man who marries the divorced woman are not guilty of Adultery

For the Jewish people those found guilty of Adultery were just put away and that was followed by stoning to death.

The differences between Jer 3:8 and Deut 24:3 is that God gives the bill of divorcement and the sending away for ADULTERY.

God does not follow the law He gave to the Jewish people for Adultery in Deut 22:22.

Because the Jews not us living today were bound by that law..We are not.

Matt 19:3 is Jewish law.. These men were guilty of just putting away their wives without the bill of divorcement--This is why Jesus says that when a Jewish man puts away his wife{lawfull when wife is guilty of adultery} but when the Jewish man puts away his wife and she is not guilty of Adultery--when all involved remarry, the man who put away the wife, the put away woman and the man who marries her are all guilty of Adultery.

We identify this in our culture today as bigmy and is a punishable offense.

Richard
 

jiggyfly

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God is a divorcee, and Israel is His ex-wife (Jer. 3:8).

Hey Logabe, got some questions for ya, can you elaborate a little.
Since God is a divorcee and Israel is His ex-wife, will God remarry anyone in the future, if so who? If it is not Israel wouldn't it be an unlawful marriage?
 

richard79408

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Greetings,

For those who want Marriage, Divorce and Remarriage to be Adultery--you need to just widen your information pool a bit.
Think about the tower of Babel--The people were being disobedient. God had told them to go out into the world--but they decided to build a tower.
What law of God were they accountable to?

God comes down and confounds the language and so they all being to move apart--What laws of marriage and of divorce did they have to use?
As time passes and as the nations begin to develop who is in charge of marriages and divorces.

Again, what law are they under and held accountable to by God.

Men then and men now--who are not in Christ are accountable to the same law that God has given all men--

It is God's moral law of sin and of death. Most of us have little or no idea as to what this law is..but it is the law that God uses to judge all men outside Christ.
Under this law--Adultery was wrong. As these nations developed they made laws governing many things from murder to adultery to stealing. They knew those and other things were wrong.

By reading the scripture we can see the development of people of Israel by looking at Abraham--who by the way was never ever under the Mosaic law--and the development of his descendents.

What we have to understand--is that until the giving of the Mosaic law--There was no law governing what to do with a divorced woman.
2nd thing that folks have to understand is the the Mosaic law never ever applied to any except the Jews present at Mt. Sinai and their descendants.
Go back and think about all the discussions you have either been in or read--This information is not present--but then the Roman Catholic Church was not yet in existence either..

It is a sin--to take a law given to a covenant group of folks and then take that law and apply it to all the folks outside that covenant. This is something else we are not thinking about..but we should.

Remember, Joseph--He knew it was wrong to commit adultery--but the Mosaic law has not yet been written or given..

Folks living in nations today who know not God still know that Adultery is wrong--and God working through the nations has left it to the civil authority--which can be good, excellent, bad or almost indifferent to regulate marriages.

Deu 24:1 When a man hath taken a wife, and married her, and it come to pass that she find no favour in his eyes, because he hath found some uncleanness in her: then let him write her a bill of divorcement, and give it in her hand, and send her out of his house.
Deu 24:2 And when she is departed out of his house, she may go and be another man's wife.
Deu 24:3 And if the latter husband hate her, and write her a bill of divorcement, and giveth it in her hand, and sendeth her out of his house; or if the latter husband die, which took her to be his wife;


Not given remember to any but the Jews...EVER!!!
Richard
 

Episkopos

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Greetings,

For those who want Marriage, Divorce and Remarriage to be Adultery--you need to just widen your information pool a bit.
Think about the tower of Babel--The people were being disobedient. God had told them to go out into the world--but they decided to build a tower.
What law of God were they accountable to?

God comes down and confounds the language and so they all being to move apart--What laws of marriage and of divorce did they have to use?
As time passes and as the nations begin to develop who is in charge of marriages and divorces.

Again, what law are they under and held accountable to by God.

Men then and men now--who are not in Christ are accountable to the same law that God has given all men--

It is God's moral law of sin and of death. Most of us have little or no idea as to what this law is..but it is the law that God uses to judge all men outside Christ.
Under this law--Adultery was wrong. As these nations developed they made laws governing many things from murder to adultery to stealing. They knew those and other things were wrong.

By reading the scripture we can see the development of people of Israel by looking at Abraham--who by the way was never ever under the Mosaic law--and the development of his descendents.

What we have to understand--is that until the giving of the Mosaic law--There was no law governing what to do with a divorced woman.
2nd thing that folks have to understand is the the Mosaic law never ever applied to any except the Jews present at Mt. Sinai and their descendants.
Go back and think about all the discussions you have either been in or read--This information is not present--but then the Roman Catholic Church was not yet in existence either..

It is a sin--to take a law given to a covenant group of folks and then take that law and apply it to all the folks outside that covenant. This is something else we are not thinking about..but we should.

Remember, Joseph--He knew it was wrong to commit adultery--but the Mosaic law has not yet been written or given..

Folks living in nations today who know not God still know that Adultery is wrong--and God working through the nations has left it to the civil authority--which can be good, excellent, bad or almost indifferent to regulate marriages.

Deu 24:1 When a man hath taken a wife, and married her, and it come to pass that she find no favour in his eyes, because he hath found some uncleanness in her: then let him write her a bill of divorcement, and give it in her hand, and send her out of his house.
Deu 24:2 And when she is departed out of his house, she may go and be another man's wife.
Deu 24:3 And if the latter husband hate her, and write her a bill of divorcement, and giveth it in her hand, and sendeth her out of his house; or if the latter husband die, which took her to be his wife;


Not given remember to any but the Jews...EVER!!!
Richard

Rather than broaden our thinking on the subject it would seem wiser to focus on the words of the King of kings.

Mat_5:32 But I say unto you, That whosoever shall put away his wife, saving for the cause of fornication, causeth her to commit adultery: and whosoever shall marry her that is divorced committeth adultery.
Mat_19:9 And I say unto you, Whosoever shall put away his wife, except it be for fornication, and shall marry another, committeth adultery: and whoso marrieth her which is put away doth commit adultery.
Mar_10:12 And if a woman shall put away her husband, and be married to another, she committeth adultery.
 

TruthSeeker2012

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Does anyone here believe that Christians in the New Covenant are given full approval by God and are free to divorce and remarry whenever they like, for any reasons whatsoever? Yes or No?

God bless.
 

richard79408

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Episkopos--Greetings from sunny Texas, It was a beautiful day,
You know I can understand the problem in broadening our thinking on the subject.
Let me ask you a question--Who are you going to apply Matt 5:32 to? And the same question in in Mat 19:9 and Mark 10:12???
This is not an easy issue but ducking is not going to help us--
The law is Gone--God put away Israel and gave her the bill of divorcement at the cross. He removed the Mosaic law from the people.
Fifty days later beginning on Pentecost and rightly so beginning with the lost sheep of the house of Israel--God offered up a new and better covenant not limited to the Jews but to the whole world.
When a person today marries Christ--He is a new person--the texts you use are Old Covenant and they belong to a law that killed--that did not bring life.
So who are you going to apply these laws that no longer exist to?
[1] Not to Gentiles
[2] Not to the Jews
{3] Not to Christians
Richard 79408
 

lawrance

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Hey Logabe, got some questions for ya, can you elaborate a little.
Since God is a divorcee and Israel is His ex-wife, will God remarry anyone in the future, if so who? If it is not Israel wouldn't it be an unlawful marriage?
It's true Christians that are Israel and there has always been Israel but the people of the tribes that loss it because they were not Israel ? just a tribe in name only not truth and a tribe can not come back but a people of God can ( true Christians ) as they are Israel.
It has nothing to do with a race. God made all.
One of my Jewish mates says that he does not believe in God at all but he says he is better than all the stupid goy and thinks it's all about him not God. and i say that is the reason why they were vomited out of the land.
True Israel obeys God and him only as they are the servants not masters. :unsure:
 

Episkopos

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Episkopos--Greetings from sunny Texas, It was a beautiful day,
You know I can understand the problem in broadening our thinking on the subject.
Let me ask you a question--Who are you going to apply Matt 5:32 to? And the same question in in Mat 19:9 and Mark 10:12???
This is not an easy issue but ducking is not going to help us--
The law is Gone--God put away Israel and gave her the bill of divorcement at the cross. He removed the Mosaic law from the people.
Fifty days later beginning on Pentecost and rightly so beginning with the lost sheep of the house of Israel--God offered up a new and better covenant not limited to the Jews but to the whole world.
When a person today marries Christ--He is a new person--the texts you use are Old Covenant and they belong to a law that killed--that did not bring life.
So who are you going to apply these laws that no longer exist to?
[1] Not to Gentiles
[2] Not to the Jews
{3] Not to Christians
Richard 79408

Are you saying that a person no longer reaps what they have sown? Are we no longer responsible for our own actions?

The taking away of responsibility for actions is lawlessness...the very thing that Jesus accuses those whom He states He never knew.
 

richard79408

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Episkopos--Greetings from sunny Texas, It is the beginning of a beautiful day,
I had stated--
So who are you going to apply these laws that no longer exist to?
[1] Not to Gentiles
[2] Not to the Jews
{3] Not to Christians
to which you asked..

Are you saying that a person no longer reaps what they have sown? Are we no longer responsible for our own actions?

The taking away of responsibility for actions is lawlessness...the very thing that Jesus accuses those whom He states He never knew.



Ny resonse--My understanding of the law--and, in specific the Mosaic law--where folks are going to attempt to legislate those who are not under that law and bind them to that law is lawlessness.

From what I am reading from your response you seem to be believing that because folks are not accountable to the Mosaic law--thus they somehow escape accountabiity.

[1] Today--all men are under law. Today not all men are under the same law..but all law comes from God.

Duing the mosaic law--Did God hold the Gentiles accountable as sin if they were not say circumcized?

Circumcision is a part of the same law containing MDR that God gave the Jews at Mt. Sinai

Because this is true--God did not hold the Gentiles accountable either for circumcision nor for the Jewish laws concerning marriage, divorce and remarriage.

What I have come to understand is that Mosaic law not applying to non Jews does not mean that non Jews are not accountable to law--they are --just not the mosaic law.

In the Garden--man had law--It is God's moral law of sin and of death. WE as human beings receive that law at birth.
However, I believe this passage by Paul expresses those outside the lawof Moses rather well.

Rom 1:18 For the wrath of God is revealed from heaven against all ungodliness and unrighteousness of men, who hold the truth in unrighteousness;
Rom 1:19 Because that which may be known of God is manifest in them; for God hath shewed it unto them.
Rom 1:20 For the invisible things of him from the creation of the world are clearly seen, being understood by the things that are made, even his eternal power and Godhead; so that they are without excuse:
Rom 1:21 Because that, when they knew God, they glorified him not as God, neither were thankful; but became vain in their imaginations, and their foolish heart was darkened.
Rom 1:22 Professing themselves to be wise, they became fools,
Rom 1:23 And changed the glory of the uncorruptible God into an image made like to corruptible man, and to birds, and fourfooted beasts, and creeping things.
Rom 1:24 Wherefore God also gave them up to uncleanness through the lusts of their own hearts, to dishonour their own bodies between themselves:
Rom 1:25 Who changed the truth of God into a lie, and worshipped and served the creature more than the Creator, who is blessed for ever. Amen.
Rom 1:26 For this cause God gave them up unto vile affections: for even their women did change the natural use into that which is against nature:
Rom 1:27 And likewise also the men, leaving the natural use of the woman, burned in their lust one toward another; men with men working that which is unseemly, and receiving in themselves that recompence of their error which was meet.
Rom 1:28 And even as they did not like to retain God in their knowledge, God gave them over to a reprobate mind, to do those things which are not convenient;
Rom 1:29 Being filled with all unrighteousness, fornication, wickedness, covetousness, maliciousness; full of envy, murder, debate, deceit, malignity; whisperers,
Rom 1:30 Backbiters, haters of God, despiteful, proud, boasters, inventors of evil things, disobedient to parents,
Rom 1:31 Without understanding, covenantbreakers, without natural affection, implacable, unmerciful:
Rom 1:32 Who knowing the judgment of God, that they which commit such things are worthy of death, not only do the same, but have pleasure in them that do them.


Now--here is what you asked me-- Are you saying that a person no longer reaps what they have sown? Are we no longer responsible for our own actions?

My observation--God has always held man accountable--always but that accountability is not always under the same identical law.
Today--there are just two laws--Those who are in a covenant relationship with God and God governs those via the New Covenant.

Those who are not in a covenant relationship with God are lost and are Governed by God's Moral law of sin and of death.

Every human being--after reaching the age of accountability falls under God's law of sin and of death.

To escape the wrath of this law--man hears, believes and obeys the gospel--God's way {New Covenant}and thus they are adopted into the family of God with a new set of laws{grace} governing them.

Richard79408

Truthseeker, greetings from sunny 90+ day today out of Texas,

you asked--Does anyone here believe that Christians in the New Covenant are given full approval by God and are free to divorce and remarry whenever they like, for any reasons whatsoever? Yes or No?

First, to get at your question my understanding of the New Covenant begins in Acts 2 and goes through the end of Revelation..

I have learned that a will is probated not at the birth of Jesus matt 1:1 but after His death on the cross. The will is revealed 50 days later on the day of Pentecost.

I also have come to understand that Jesus never addressed or gave rules to Gentiles in regard to marriage, divorce and remarriage.
We need to understand that the Jews were dead--separated from God by sin and that the mission of Jesus was to take the word of God to those who had rejected it. And, that is exactly what He does. The Gentiles are lost but due to many things--like not keeping the Mosaic law--God no longer accepted their offerings and sacrifices.

We can see that the Jews did not so believe because they continued to offer said things.

They just refused to believe that God would not accept their sacrifices and offerings.

Now, Matt 19 and 5 and the other places in the gospel accounts where Jesus talks about this subject--He is not talking to any of us here today..
These folks were violating the law and Jesus is bringing them back to the law and what it teaches. And, in this case, MDR.
If you choose to go here-- http://rgfheart.com/abs/about/


Under conclusions choose the first one--I cor 7 married or unmarried.

Now to your question--Does anyone here believe that Christians in the New Covenant are given full approval by God and are free to divorce and remarry whenever they like, for any reasons whatsoever? Yes or No?

I cannot respond to your question as worded.

[1] I can find no place in scripture from the garden to the time that Jesus returns--That God approves of a divorce freely.

[2] I do understand on the other hand, that for the Jews God provided law for when it does happen and we know it happened then because it is still happening today.


[a]God did not provide under the Mosaic law any law for any other person not a Jew.

[3] In 1 cor 7--when you read that--Paul does not say.

So I can go to scripture--learn that God gave law for His people when they divorced i.e. broke the marriage covenant.
I understand that God left the laws governing marriage to the nations out side of Israel then and now.

Under the US Constitution and my state of Texas,


I can find nowhere that permission is granted for anyone to "freely marry and divorce."
I can find rules and laws governing marriage which by the way come off of Matt 19:9.

One that comes to mind is the man or woman today walking away from a marriage and then later remarrying--without the putting away and the bill of divorce.


We identify that as adultery and call it bigmy and is punishable as a crime.

So the part I can answer is this: No, I do not find God today granting and encouraging--your word I believe was "full permission" No, I cannot find God telling people that they cannot but as in every sin there are penalties.


Yet if one obeys the law--puts away the spouse and gives the bill of divorcement--I do find that a legal scriptural divorce with no hint of adultery being committed in the remarriage.

Richard 79408
 

TruthSeeker2012

New Member
Mar 9, 2012
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Question for everyone:

Who here believes and teaches that Christians in the New Covenant are given full approval by God to divorce and remarry whenever they like, for any reasons whatsoever?

God bless.
 

richard79408

New Member
Mar 20, 2012
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Greetings, Here is some information of God's Moral law of sin and of death,

There are many who ask, "If man today is not under the new covenant law of Christ for the New Testament church, is he then not under any law to God?
They also ask, "If mankind today is not under the new covenant law of Christ for the church, then what law does he transgress in becoming an alien sinner?"
The answer to both questions is simple. The Bible teaches that all men are under law to God -- but it the Bible does not teach that all men are accountable to God under the same law. Alien sinners are accountable to God under the "law of sin and death" (Rom. 8:1-2), and New Testament Christians are accountable to God under Christ's " new covenant law" for the church.

In the creation and beginning of each life, all innocent youth are under God's moral "law of sin and death" and they transgress this law in becoming alien sinners (Gen. 2:9-17; Rom. 1:18-32; 2:14-15; 3:9- 10, 23; 5:12-21; 6:23; 7:23-25; 8:1-2; Eph. 2:1-3). Innocent youth, contrary to what some may assume today, are not subject to and do not transgress Christ's "new covenant law" in becoming alien sinners.

Notice how Paul teaches that aliens are not accountable to the "righteousness" of Christ's new covenant law for the church.

"For when ye were the servants of sin, ye were free from righteousness" (Rom. 6:20)."6 For to be carnally minded is death; but to be spiritually minded is life and peace. 7 Becausethe carnal mind is enmity against God: for it is not subject to the law of God, neither indeed can be. 8So then they that are in the flesh cannot please God" (Rom. 8:6-7).

In their first transgression against God's moral "law of sin and death," each youth becomes an alien sinner and separated from God by his first personal sin. The "wages" of this first sin is "death" (Rom. 6:23). These youth, who have now become "alien sinners," stand condemned before God and now need to be "saved" from their sins.

Once each youth becomes an "alien sinner," he or she is then subject to the "first principles" of the New Testament "gospel" of Christ for salvation from their alien sins (Matt.28:19-20; Mk. 16:15-16; Lk. 24:47-48).

Only when the alien sinner obeys the New Testament "plan of salvation" does he enter the New Testament church and come under Christ's "new covenant law" for the church.


One of the untalked, undiscussed issues on the MDR theme is that we have and are looking to make folks accountable and we tend to gravitate at some level to the Mosaic law.


And since folks misuse some of the covenant texts we need to think about what each of us are teaching in the light of a better understanding of the texts.


We cannot continue to teach the doctrines of demons here in God's name believing we are teaching it as scripture. We are not!!

And yet, a study of covenants is as misunderstood as this subject of MDR--


The "church" is only the custodian of the scriptures--not the author of the texts--God is.


The new covenant begins in Acts 2 not in Matt 1:1--The Old Covenant ended at the cross--after the death of the Son of God not as His Birth.

50 days later the New Covenant begins--and in the new covenant it is for all men unlike the Mosaic covenant limited to just the Jews.

Richard 79408
 

logabe

Active Member
Aug 28, 2008
880
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Hey Logabe, got some questions for ya, can you elaborate a little.
Since God is a divorcee and Israel is His ex-wife, will God remarry anyone in the future, if so who? If it is not Israel wouldn't it be an unlawful marriage?


Yes it would... but God is so simple, but yet He is also sophisticated, and
He thinks of everything at the same time. He's just God.

The law mandates that divorce must take place before it is lawful to send
away one's wife. In other words, it is unlawful to send her away without
divorce papers.

The ten lost tribes of Israel were sent out of God's house after being given
a writ of divorce. The divorce is the legal paperwork that makes it lawful to
send her away. There is a difference between the divorce and the act of
sending her away. Failure to make that distinction has been the cause of
much confusion and lawlessness. Matt. 5:32 says,

32 but I say to you that everyone who releases
[apolue] his wife, except on account of fornication,
causes her to commit adultery; and he who marries
the released one [apoluo] commits adultery.

Take note that the word “divorce” does not even appear in this verse.
Jesus was talking about releasing, putting away, or sending away one's
wife without proper divorce papers. If a man sends his wife out of the
house in violation of the divine law—without giving her a writ of divorce—
then he causes her to commit adultery. Why? Because she will probably
have to find someone else to marry in order to survive, and if she
cannot find anyone, she will probably resort to becoming a harlot.

If she were to marry someone else without having lawful divorce papers,
then she would be committing adultery. Take note that if she had been
properly divorced, then even if she became a harlot, she would not be
committing adultery. It would be fornication, but not adultery. One must
be still married to commit adultery. And that is why the one who marries
one who has been sent away without divorce papers commits adultery as
well.

Only after God gave Israel a bill of divorcement did He send her out of
His house. Divorce came first—then came the dispersion. Israel's divorce
ended her marriage relationship with Jesus that had been established by
the vows of the Old Covenant. Israel's dispersion was the act of sending
her out of His house.

Divorce really is divorce, not merely an unlawful separation as many
Churches have taught. God had to divorce Israel in order to end the Old
Covenant and bring in a New Covenant. If divorce were unlawful, then
Christians have no right to claim a New Covenant, for we would all have to
seek to marry God in an Old Covenant marriage. That would make us all as
Hagar, rather than as Sarah, and we would have to remain in bondage
forever. We can thank God for providing for divorce in the law, so that He
would be able to lawfully divorce Israel and provide for remarriage under the
New Covenant.

How could God remarry His divorced wife without violating His own law (Deut.
24:3,4)? They did not even remotely consider the fact that God might come to
earth as the Messiah, that He would die, and that He would be raised again as
a new creature—a different Person in the eyes of the law.

Jesus' death and resurrection made Him eligible as a New Creature to remarry
the house of Israel. This is how His death freed him from the law that forbids
a man to remarry a former spouse after she has been remarried. Being free
from the law does not mean we are free to sin that grace may abound. We are
never free to be lawless. But Jesus' death did free Him from the law forbidding
Him to remarry Israel.

What a Plan! He never ceases to amaze me.


Logabe
 

Strat

Active Member
Mar 25, 2012
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Marriage is another one of life's potentialy loathsome burdens,that is why it is presented as choice and not a command....there is no end to the misery one person can bring to another person's life.
 

TruthSeeker2012

New Member
Mar 9, 2012
371
3
0
Marriage is another one of life's potentialy loathsome burdens,that is why it is presented as choice and not a command....there is no end to the misery one person can bring to another person's life.

You sound like you have been through a touch marriage and been deeply wounded and hurt?

God bless.
 

richard79408

New Member
Mar 20, 2012
86
1
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Strat, greetings from Texas,

You are correct. Unfortunately what is also correct is the misunderstanding of the marriage, divorce and remarriage that cause the same pain by others and it need not to be.

If you have the time you might go here http://rgfheart.com/abs and this site will enable anyone, anyone to understand and refute those who seek to inforce a Jewish law upon us today.

Richard