Will Christ utter new words in a Premil millennium?

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Spiritual Israelite

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David, there is a certain sense in which our will is never free. As Paul says in Romans 6, we all are, at any given time, either slaves to unrighteousness or slaves to righteousness. We are all naturally the former, but if and when we are born again of the Spirit, then we become the latter. What Jesus tells certain groups of Jews in John 6, 8, and 10 is of great relevance here.

But from a purely human, experiential standpoint, our will is always free.

Of Christians, those born again of the Spirit, Paul tells the Christians in Philippi ~ and us by extension ~ to "work out (their/our) own salvation with fear and trembling, for it is God who works in (us), both to will and to work for his good pleasure" (Philippians 2:12-13). We do the willing and working, and freely, but it is because God is at work in us so that we will do so.
That's not what Paul is saying there. You (not Paul) saying that God ensures "that we will do so" (work out our salvation) makes Paul's claim that we need to work out our own salvation with fear and trembling completely meaningless. If God ensure that we will do so, then there's nothing that we need to work out. God works it all out Himself in that case.

You won't admit it, but you put ALL of the responsibility for one's salvation on God alone. But, Paul doesn't give that impression at all. God works in us so that we can work out our own salvation, but we are made responsible by God to cooperate with Him and submit to Him and that is each person's free will choice to make as to whether or not to do that.

It can't both be true that we play a part in working out our own salvation with fear and trembling while God ensures that we do so. In that case, you make God our Programmer and we are then just His robots doing what God programs us to do. It would never be said that we are responsible to work out our own salvation in that case. That is just not the impression Paul gives at all. Instead, he gives the impression that we have to work out our own salvation, but we can only do that with God's help. But, God doesn't do it for us. He doesn't force us to obey Him. We have to cooperate with Him and willingly submit to Him and work with Him. Your doctrine removes all responsibility from man as it relates to salvation, but scripture does not teach that. Salvation is synergistic and not monergistic.
 

Spiritual Israelite

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Ok, PinSeeker, I’m just looking for your opinion on this not a debate, I personally think the Canon is complete, but what about if some documents or scrolls were discovered?

In 1 Corinthians 5:9 Paul says “I wrote unto you in an epistle not to company with fornicators” that epistle is what some people call zero Corinthians, it’s the epistle before 1 Corinthians.

If that epistle was found, authenticated, and determined to be written by Paul I would think it should be added to the Canon. Daniel 12:4 does say knowledge will increase and someone could use that as an argument for why the Canon is not yet complete.
I'm not going to try to debate about what you're saying here, but I'm just going to ask you a question. Do you think the Canon that we currently have is sufficient for all of our needs? Or do you think there could be something missing that could be affecting our lives in some way because of not having what is missing?
 
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Davidpt

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David, there is a certain sense in which our will is never free. As Paul says in Romans 6, we all are, at any given time, either slaves to unrighteousness or slaves to righteousness. We are all naturally the former, but if and when we are born again of the Spirit, then we become the latter. What Jesus tells certain groups of Jews in John 6, 8, and 10 is of great relevance here.

But from a purely human, experiential standpoint, our will is always free.

Of Christians, those born again of the Spirit, Paul tells the Christians in Philippi ~ and us by extension ~ to "work out (their/our) own salvation with fear and trembling, for it is God who works in (us), both to will and to work for his good pleasure" (Philippians 2:12-13). We do the willing and working, and freely, but it is because God is at work in us so that we will do so. This is not saying that He "manipulates our will," but that he sanctifies our hearts by the ongoing work of His Spirit, and because of this our will is ~ or becomes more and more in this life ~ to please Him and do His will.

The issue is not really the will, David, it is autonomy. Neither you nor I ~ nor any other human being, past, present or future ~ is autonomous... we are not self-existing "free agents." Only God is.

Grace and peace to you.

This free will debate aside. Why not submit some compelling arguments that might convince me that Zechariah 14:16-19 can be meaning before Zechariah 14:12 rather than after? After all, if verses 16-19 can be meaning before verse 12 rather than after, I would then no longer have a valid reason to apply those verses to a future millennium if the here and now explain those verses instead.

But if I am right that verses 16-19 must follow verse 12, obviously then, for example, they shall go up from year to year, that this can't be fulfilled in a single day. Therefore, more days are required to fulfill this after verse 12 is fulfilled first. How many more days are required? An infinite amount of days or a finite amount of days? Keeping in mind that this has to be factored in---that whoever will not come up, upon them shall be no rain. Should we apply that to infinity or should we apply that to a finite amount of days?
 

grafted branch

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I'm not going to try to debate about what you're saying here, but I'm just going to ask you a question. Do you think the Canon that we currently have is sufficient for all of our needs? Or do you think there could be something missing that could be affecting our lives in some way because of not having what is missing?
Well, was the Old Testament sufficient for all the needs of those who lived prior to Jesus being on earth? Did the church at Corinth really need Paul’s zero epistle?

Here’s the thing, claiming our Canon is complete down to every last word and punctuation mark is a difficult position to defend. Another person, outside of this forum, is challenging me about sola scriptoria and the Bible alone and in its entirety, which is why I’m asking about this.

Jesus Himself quoted from both the Septuagint and the proto-Masoretic Hebrew and yet both are not word for word the same. The Septuagint (LXX) adds another 1,300 years or so to the Bible timeline, meaning it has the earth being an extra 1,300 years or so older than what our Masoretic based KJV has, and yet Jesus clearly used the LXX more so than He did the Masoretic. Where Jesus quoted the LXX, it becomes part of the Canon and the Masoretic which wasn’t quoted is part of the Canon also because someone made that decision way back when. That means there are now two different versions of the same verse and they are both part of the Canon.

For example in Mark 7:6-7 Jesus quotes Isaiah 29:13(LXX).



Mark 7:6-7(KJV)6 He answered and said unto them, Well hath Esaias prophesied of you hypocrites, as it is written, This people honoureth me with their lips, but their heart is far from me. 7 Howbeit in vain do they worship me, teaching for doctrines the commandments of men.

Isaiah 29:13(KJV) Wherefore the Lord said, Forasmuch as this people draw near me with their mouth, and with their lips do honour me, but have removed their heart far from me, and their fear toward me is taught by the precept of men:

Isaiah 29:13 (LXX) And the Lord has said, This people draw nigh to me with their mouth, and they honour me with their lips, but their heart is far from me: but in vain do they worship me, teaching the commandments and doctrines of men.



The meaning hasn’t really changed but different words are used between the LXX and KJV in Isaiah 29:13. So, looking at your question, I have to ask, was it necessary to have two different versions of Isaiah 29:13? Was there some insufficiency that would’ve affected our lives if both versions hadn’t been canonized?

Personally, I don’t think so but if you think our current Canon is absolutely accurate then you should be able to come up with an answer as to why the two versions were necessary when they decided to make them both part of the Canon.
 

ewq1938

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I am sticking to the scriptures.

Leviticus 19:11 (NIV) Do not steal. Do not lie. Do not deceive one another.

We can deceive one another, that is a Biblical fact. You are the one that seems to be straying from the scriptures by thinking that once Satan is bound we won’t be able to deceive one another.


Your strawman is weak. The scriptures only forbid satan from deceiving the nations. It does not forbid anyone else from deceiving someone else.
 

grafted branch

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Your strawman is weak. The scriptures only forbid satan from deceiving the nations. It does not forbid anyone else from deceiving someone else.
Great, it looks like we are in agreement. There will be deception occurring during the millennium, but there won’t be any deception from Satan.

Now all we need to do is figure out how Satan deceives the nations (<1484> ethnos) and maybe we can at least agree on what a millennial economy looks like when Satan doesn’t deceive the ethnos.
 

PinSeeker

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Ok, PinSeeker, I’m just looking for your opinion on this not a debate, I personally think the Canon is complete, but what about if some documents or scrolls were discovered?

In 1 Corinthians 5:9 Paul says “I wrote unto you in an epistle not to company with fornicators” that epistle is what some people call zero Corinthians, it’s the epistle before 1 Corinthians.

If that epistle was found, authenticated, and determined to be written by Paul I would think it should be added to the Canon. Daniel 12:4 does say knowledge will increase and someone could use that as an argument for why the Canon is not yet complete.
The Holy Spirit not only inspired the Word of God in certain men across the centuries two millennia ago, He has maintained its integrity ever since then. Yes, the Canon is complete. t is what it is.

Grace and peace to you.
 

PinSeeker

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And here we go again...

That's not what Paul is saying there.
It is. I respect your opinion, but it is.

You (not Paul) saying that God ensures "that we will do so" (work out our salvation) makes Paul's claim that we need to work out our own salvation with fear and trembling completely meaningless. If God ensure that we will do so, then there's nothing that we need to work out. God works it all out Himself in that case.
No, because God is at work in us ~ because we have His Spirit leading us ~ we will work out our own salvation and can be confident in doing so. The process of sanctification will look different in each one of us, because we are individuals, of course, but the outcome ~ our salvation ~ will be the same. "He Who began a good work in (us) will bring it to completion at the day of Christ." as Paul said just a few sentences before Philippians 2:12-13, in Philippians 1:6.

You won't admit it, but you put ALL of the responsibility for one's salvation on God alone.
The primary initiative is His, according to His will. If not for His gracious choice... and giving us new birth by His Spirit... we would have remained children of the devil and only desiring to do his will... slaves to unrighteousness. But, having been chosen by God before the foundation of the world, and at the appointed time given new birth by God through the work of His Spirit, we are since then in Christ and thus His sons, desiring to do His will... slaves to righteousness. Yet again, "it depends not on human will or exertion, but on God, who has mercy" (Romans 9:16). Paul does not deny or shortchange man's free will or responsibility in any way ~ and so neither does any good Calvinist <smile> ~ but only says there that one's salvation does not depend on it. But yes, once that happens, we have great responsibility... to obey, trust, follow, serve, and of course love Him. And we do so freely (although not perfectly, of course), because we are in Christ, sons of God, slaves to righteousness. God created... re-created, actually... us for this purpose... we are called by God to do these things. And like everyone else, will be judged according to what we have done.

So, again, God began a good work in us and will bring it to completion at the day of Christ, and therefore we can work out our own salvation with fear and trembling ~ with solemn reverence for, confidence in, and in praise of God and His Spirit (and Jesus of course). As you know, regarding how anyone can be saved, with man this is impossible, but with God, all things are possible... and as Paul goes on to say in Philippians 4:13... well, he says it of himself, but it is true for all of us who are in Christ, "(we) can do all things through Him Who strengthens (us)."

In closing, a rhetorical question: If the responsibility for one's salvation is divided between God and the one, then shouldn't one praise and worship in... some proportion... both God and himself/herself for his/her salvation? <smile>

Well...

It can't both be true that we play a part in working out our own salvation with fear and trembling while God ensures that we do so.
It can, and it does. Because of God's work in our hearts, we respond positively ~ because of this new spirit we have... because we have the Holy Spirit. Once we are born again, we are being made more and more like Jesus.

In that case, you make God our Programmer and we are then just His robots doing what God programs us to do. It would never be said that we are responsible to work out our own salvation in that case. That is just not the impression Paul gives at all. Instead, he gives the impression that we have to work out our own salvation, but we can only do that with God's help. But, God doesn't do it for us. He doesn't force us to obey Him. We have to cooperate with Him and willingly submit to Him and work with Him. Your doctrine removes all responsibility from man as it relates to salvation, but scripture does not teach that. Salvation is synergistic and not monergistic.
Pish. Again, If the responsibility for one's salvation is divided between God and the one, then shouldn't one praise and worship both God and himself/herself for his/her salvation? <smile> Surely you see the absurdity in this question...

Grace and peace to you.
 
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ewq1938

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Great, it looks like we are in agreement. There will be deception occurring during the millennium,

The bible doesn't state that.


but there won’t be any deception from Satan.

It does state that.


Now all we need to do is figure out how Satan deceives the nations (<1484> ethnos) and maybe we can at least agree on what a millennial economy looks like when Satan doesn’t deceive the ethnos.

In Rev 20 he deceives them into going to Jerusalem in a failed war where they all die.

Rev 20:8 And shall go out to deceive the nations which are in the four quarters of the earth, Gog and Magog, to gather them together to battle: the number of whom is as the sand of the sea.
 

PinSeeker

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The scriptures only forbid satan from deceiving the nations.
He is bound ~ absolutely restricted ~ from being able to deceive the Gentiles as a whole. Yet again, every Gentile Christian is irrefutable evidence of Satan's absolute inability to keep the Gospel from reaching to the ends of the earth. This became the case two millennia ago... thus Christ's mandate after His resurrection and before His ascension to "(g)o therefore and make disciples of all nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father and of the Son and of the Holy Spirit, teaching them to observe all that (He has) commanded (us)" (Matthew 28:19:20) and by the power of His Spirit to "be (His) witnesses in Jerusalem and in all Judea and Samaria, and to the end of the earth" (Acts 1:8).

But this does not mean that Satan has no ability to exert influence in the world and thus to... mislead, by a plethora of means... individuals; he is, as Peter says, "(prowling) around like a roaring lion, seeking someone to devour" (1 Peter 5:8). Peter is here referring directly to Ezekiel 19, by the way...

You can think of it in the same manner as a criminal in a maximum-security prison. As such, he/she is... well, imprisoned, of course, and absolutely unable to commit any crime, but even so is still able to exert influence among those on the outside...

Grace and peace to you.
 

grafted branch

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The bible doesn't state that.
Ok, so are you admitting you have no idea what’s going to happen in the millennium?

You seem to be in agreement that a person can deceive another person, but since the Bible doesn’t explicitly say they will be deceiving one another in the millennium, apparently, you’re not going to admit it and just say “The bible doesn't state that”.

Since the Bible doesn’t say there is a gap in between Daniel’s week 69 and 70, would you use your same methodology on this? Or do you cherry pick what scriptures you do that with?
 

Spiritual Israelite

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And here we go again...
If you're going to promote Calvinism here, then I'm going to refute it. Every time. This is a public forum, so if you can talk about this topic here, so can I.

No, because God is at work in us ~ because we have His Spirit leading us ~ we will work out our own salvation and can be confident in doing so.
You do not believe there is anything we need to work out ourselves as it relates to salvation. Why don't you just admit that? In your view it's God who does EVERYTHING in relation to salvation. Why do you try to hide that by acting as if we have any responsibility at all in the matter when you know you don't believe that?

The primary initiative is His, according to His will. If not for His gracious choice... and giving us new birth by His Spirit... we would have remained children of the devil and only desiring to do his will... slaves to unrighteousness.
This isn't taught anywhere in scripture. This is all just your own words.

But, having been chosen by God before the foundation of the world, and at the appointed time given new birth by God through the work of His Spirit, we are since then in Christ and thus His sons, desiring to do His will... slaves to righteousness.
If everything is up to God, as you believe, then why wouldn't He just make us slaves to righteousness from birth? What is the point of us supposedly being born totally depraved and slaves to sin if we are eventually going to be slaves to righteousness?

Yet again, "it depends not on human will or exertion, but on God, who has mercy" (Romans 9:16).
Why do you make doctrine out of that verse while ignoring Romans 11:30-32 which says that God wants to have mercy on all people? Man didn't decide that God should want to have mercy on all people. God decided that. Because God is love (1 John 4:8) and it would make no sense that He would only want to have mercy on some and not the rest.

Scripture teaches that Jesus died for the sins of the whole world (John 3:16, 1 John 2:1-2) and that God wants all people to repent (Ezekiel 33:11, 2 Peter 3:9, Acts 17:30-31) and to be saved (1 Timothy 2:3-6). Calvinism contradicts all of that.

Paul does not deny or shortchange man's free will or responsibility in any way ~ and so neither does any good Calvinist <smile>
LOL. I don't know who you think you're fooling with this. When it comes to salvation, Calvinism teaches that man has no responsibility, in and of himself. Can you not be honest enough to admit that?

~ but only says there that one's salvation does not depend on it. But yes, once that happens, we have great responsibility... to obey, trust, follow, serve, and of course love Him.
And what if we don't? Of course, in your doctrine that isn't possible for the elect because God makes it so that we "obey, trust, follow, serve, and of course love Him". So, in Calvinism it's God's responsibility to make sure we do what He wants us to do and we have no responsibility in and of ourselves relating to that at all.

And we do so freely (although not perfectly, of course), because we are in Christ, sons of God, slaves to righteousness. God created... re-created, actually... us for this purpose... we are called by God to do these things. And like everyone else, will be judged according to what we have done.
What does that mean to you exactly to be judged according to what we have done? Is that based on choices that we make in and of ourselves? Why else would we be judged if it's not based on that?

So, again, God began a good work in us and will bring it to completion at the day of Christ, and therefore we can work out our own salvation with fear and trembling ~ with solemn reverence for, confidence in, and in praise of God and His Spirit (and Jesus of course).
You believe that it is God who works out our salvation and we cannot have any part, in an of ourselves, to work out our own salvation. Why do you act as if you believe otherwise?

As you know, regarding how anyone can be saved, with man this is impossible, but with God, all things are possible... and as Paul goes on to say in Philippians 4:13... well, he says it of himself, but it is true for all of us who are in Christ, "(we) can do all things through Him Who strengthens (us)."

In closing, a rhetorical question: If the responsibility for one's salvation is divided between God and the one, then shouldn't one praise and worship in... some proportion... both God and himself/herself for his/her salvation? <smile>
No, not at all. Look at the following parable and assume, for the sake of argument (looking at things from my non-Calvinist perspective), that both the Pharisee and tax collector have free will in the sense that God leaves the choice up to them to decide whether or not to humble themselves and repent of their sins while trusting in Him for their salvation rather than themselves.

Luke 18:9 To some who were confident of their own righteousness and looked down on everyone else, Jesus told this parable: 10 “Two men went up to the temple to pray, one a Pharisee and the other a tax collector. 11 The Pharisee stood by himself and prayed: ‘God, I thank you that I am not like other people—robbers, evildoers, adulterers—or even like this tax collector. 12 I fast twice a week and give a tenth of all I get.’ 13 “But the tax collector stood at a distance. He would not even look up to heaven, but beat his breast and said, ‘God, have mercy on me, a sinner.’ 14 “I tell you that this man, rather than the other, went home justified before God. For all those who exalt themselves will be humbled, and those who humble themselves will be exalted.”

The Pharisee chose to exalt himself and believed that he would be justified before God by his own supposed righteousness. He thought he was better than other people like the tax collector while not understanding that he was a sinner like everyone else. The tax collector, meanwhile, chose to humble himself while acknowledging that he was a sinner and needed God's mercy.

In this scenario, do you think the tax collector would be praising and worshiping himself for being justified before God despite having just humbled himself and acknowledging that he is a sinner and is not worthy of praise and worship? Of course not. So, the idea that if salvation is partly the responsibility of man means that man would then have a reason to praise and worship himself is false. This parable proves that. We are not responsible for proving we are worthy to be saved, we are responsible to acknowledge that we are lost sinners who are not worthy and are in need of God's mercy.

It can, and it does. Because of God's work in our hearts, we respond positively ~ because of this new spirit we have... because we have the Holy Spirit. Once we are born again, we are being made more and more like Jesus.
But, it is not automatic that one who has been born again ends up being made more and more like Jesus. You think we have no choice in the matter despite Paul warning believers to not grieve the Holy Spirit and to not quench the Holy Spirit. If what you believed was true, it would not be possible for us to grieve and quench the Holy Spirit.

Pish. Again, If the responsibility for one's salvation is divided between God and the one, then shouldn't one praise and worship both God and himself/herself for his/her salvation? <smile>
Again, no. That is something you made up in your imagination. Scripture says we are saved by grace through faith and not by works of righteousness. You have decided that faith is a work of righteousness that, if it was something we do, then it would be cause for us to boast and praise and worship ourselves. But, faith and works are not the same. They are contrasted with each other in passages like Ephesians 2:8-10 and James 2.

Surely you see the absurdity in this question...
Yes, I do. It's absurd for you to assume that if we have responsibility in salvation that it means we would then be able to praise and worship ourselves for our own salvation. That shows a lack of understanding of what we are held responsible to do by God, which is exactly the opposite of praising and worshiping ourselves.
 

Spiritual Israelite

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This free will debate aside. Why not submit some compelling arguments that might convince me that Zechariah 14:16-19 can be meaning before Zechariah 14:12 rather than after? After all, if verses 16-19 can be meaning before verse 12 rather than after, I would then no longer have a valid reason to apply those verses to a future millennium if the here and now explain those verses instead.

But if I am right that verses 16-19 must follow verse 12, obviously then, for example, they shall go up from year to year, that this can't be fulfilled in a single day. Therefore, more days are required to fulfill this after verse 12 is fulfilled first. How many more days are required? An infinite amount of days or a finite amount of days? Keeping in mind that this has to be factored in---that whoever will not come up, upon them shall be no rain. Should we apply that to infinity or should we apply that to a finite amount of days?
It seems that you take Zechariah 14:12 literally, right? Do you take verse 13 literally as well?

Zechariah 14:12 This is the plague with which the Lord will strike all the nations that fought against Jerusalem: Their flesh will rot while they are still standing on their feet, their eyes will rot in their sockets, and their tongues will rot in their mouths. 13 On that day people will be stricken by the Lord with great panic. They will seize each other by the hand and attack one another.

If you take both verses 12 and 13 literally, then explain how people could be stricken by the Lord with great panic and then attack one another after they have already been burned alive where they are standing? That would make no sense, so it's not possible that both verses can be taken literally since that would cause the verses to contradict each other.

It's clear that verses 16-19 follow verse 12 chronologically, but I'm not sure why that would support Premillennialism. Do you believe verses 16-19 are talking about people literally being required to go to Jerusalem to worship God and keep the feast of tabernacles or else be punished with no rain? If so, why would God, almost 2,000 years ago, have made it so that people no longer had to go to Jerusalem to worship Him and instead required them to worship Him in spirit and in truth wherever they are (John 4:19-24) only to make people again have to go to Jerusalem to worship Him in the future? Do you think people will no longer be required to worship Him in spirit and in truth during the supposed future thousand years? If so, why? If not, then why would anyone need to go to Jerusalem to worship Him?

Zechariah 14 is an undeniably difficult passage of scripture to interpret. Why do you believe in a doctrine that is based on difficult and highly debatable passages of scripture rather than clear, straightforward passages?
 

ewq1938

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Ok, so are you admitting you have no idea what’s going to happen in the millennium?

No, I said, "he bible doesn't state that." Why make statements when there is no biblical support?


You seem to be in agreement that a person can deceive another person, but since the Bible doesn’t explicitly say they will be deceiving one another in the millennium, apparently, you’re not going to admit it and just say “The bible doesn't state that”.

Admit an assumption of yours? Why would I do that. Your assumption has zero support.



Since the Bible doesn’t say there is a gap in between Daniel’s week 69 and 70, would you use your same methodology on this? Or do you cherry pick what scriptures you do that with?

That's not an equal comparison, nor do care about Daniel's weeks.