You went minimalist... probably a good starting place.
Eze 28 is a prophecy directed against the King of Tyre, a Phoenician city-state. (That isn't so interesting.)
But it gets interesting when Ezekiel relates it to Genesis. According to Ezekiel, the "Prince of Tyrus" was IN Eden. He WAS the "covering cherub" - the angel with the flaming sword who prevented Adam & Eve from accessing the Tree of Life.
And that means Ezekiel doesn't interpret Adam & Eve literally. He treats the characters there as symbols to be interpreted. That's already a departure from modern church doctrine.
First audience interpretation is required Wick...hope you can keep up.
The anointed cherub is named in the passage, but not as a rebellious angel:
"Son of man, say to the prince of Tyre..." (verse 2).
Chapters 26 and 27 contain prophecies concerning the imminent destruction of the city of Tyre.
Context is everything!
So, chapters 26 and 27 of Ezekiel record the prophecy of Tyre’s destruction, which is quite literal, as the ancient site of Tyre today resembles "the top of a rock... a place to spread nets upon" and has never been rebuilt (Ezek 26:14).
I assume you wholeheartedly agree with this...well I hope so!
The rest of chapter 28 shifts focus to a prophecy against Sidon and the future restoration of Israel.
1. Given this context, why would the prophet suddenly introduce a “revelation” about the origin of Satan?
2. And if Satan is indeed a rebel angel, why is he referred to as “a man”?
I don’t mind if your answers are vague or dismissive, that won’t offend me at all. Right now, it’s about asking the questions and forming opinions that may or may not be accurate.
For what it’s worth, my answer is that I’m already suspicious before even looking at the text, which isn’t a good starting point if you’re trying to prove something like a fallen angel.
If Satan did exist, he wouldn’t be called a man, unless he was disguising himself as one, but the context here doesn’t support that idea.