Biblical divorce

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JohnDB

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Matthew 5:32 But I say unto you, That whosoever shall put away his wife, saving for the cause of fornication, causeth her to commit adultery: and whosoever shall marry her that is divorced committeth adultery.
Ok....
It says "put away". Actually same language for "divorced" used at the end.

It's discussing a practice called "putting away" a wife. Where she is kicked out of the house, not let back in, and then you have to only supply her with 3 balls of sustenance about the size of a walnut each week.
(Starvation)

Put away wives were common enough that it became something of wife trading, buying, and selling.

This does not discuss true divorce.

AND

There is a test for a wife suspected of being unfaithful.
Whole procedure and laws governing it.
 

Ronald Nolette

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[1Co 7:27-28 KJV] 27 Art thou bound unto a wife? seek not to be loosed. Art thou loosed from a wife? seek not a wife. 28 But and if thou marry, thou hast not sinned; and if a virgin marry, she hath not sinned. Nevertheless such shall have trouble in the flesh: but I spare you.

I think it is......it is connected to the following verses

[1Co 7:15 KJV] 15 But if the unbelieving depart, let him depart. A brother or a sister is not under bondage in such [cases]: but God hath called us to peace.

Believers are not bound to the departing spouse

[1Co 7:24 KJV] 24 Brethren, let every man, wherein he is called, therein abide with God.

[1Co 7:27-28 KJV] 27 Art thou bound unto a wife? seek not to be loosed. Art thou loosed from a wife? seek not a wife. 28 But and if thou marry, thou hast not sinned; and if a virgin marry, she hath not sinned. Nevertheless such shall have trouble in the flesh: but I spare you.

Paul is saying to abide where you are called if loosed from a wife thru her departing seek not a wife but if you do it's not a sin
Sorry but Jesus waqsn't preaching law but grace. If you read carefully the issue in MAtthew and Corinthians is not divorce, but divorce and remarriage.

The bible (the New Testament of which the gospels are part of) give us three resons for divorce and remarriage- death, adultery and an unbelieivng spouse leaving the marriage. Every other instance of divorce requires the believer to stay unamrried.
 

Doug

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Put away wives were common enough that it became something of wife trading, buying, and selling.

This does not discuss true divorce.
[Mat 5:31-32 KJV] 31 It hath been said, Whosoever shall put away his wife, let him give her a writing of divorcement: 32 But I say unto you, That whosoever shall put away his wife, saving for the cause of fornication, causeth her to commit adultery: and whosoever shall marry her that is divorced committeth adultery.

The Bible says putting away is divorce
 

Doug

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Sorry but Jesus waqsn't preaching law but grace. If you read carefully the issue in MAtthew and Corinthians is not divorce, but divorce and remarriage.
I think you missed what I wrote about remarriage....................
[1Corinthians 7:15 KJV] 15 But if the unbelieving depart, let him depart. A brother or a sister is not under bondage in such [cases]: but God hath called us to peace.

If an unbelieving husband or wife leave the marriage, Paul under grace says to let them leave. If the marriage is dissolved the remaining spouse is not under the bondage of the law and is free to marry another, but only in the Lord (1 Corinthians 7:39). This can be seen in the verses below.

[1Corinthians 7:27-28 KJV] 27 Art thou bound unto a wife? seek not to be loosed. Art thou loosed from a wife? seek not a wife. 28 But and if thou marry, thou hast not sinned; and if a virgin marry, she hath not sinned. Nevertheless such shall have trouble in the flesh: but I spare you.

This does not nullify my understanding that adultery was not a sanction for divorce but what was under the law the result of divorce
 

JohnDB

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[Mat 5:31-32 KJV] 31 It hath been said, Whosoever shall put away his wife, let him give her a writing of divorcement: 32 But I say unto you, That whosoever shall put away his wife, saving for the cause of fornication, causeth her to commit adultery: and whosoever shall marry her that is divorced committeth adultery.

The Bible says putting away is divorce
Those are two completely different actions. Sure they go together (or are supposed to) but they often did not.
Because, the dowry was to be given to the woman upon getting divorced. And the husband's did not want to give it up (often they couldn't afford to). So the practice of "putting away" was common by schmuck guys. Then they would go and get a new wife....(polygamy was very much allowed)
The women did NOT have access to the courts unless their husband did it for them. The women had zero right to divorce her husband. (Women were one half step above property in the ancient near east)

Of course by the time the Bible was translated into English half a world away, the customs and practices of the Ancient Near East were unknown. The predatory environment of husband's, wives, and put away wives was unheard of....kinda.

Before the advent of digital identification....social security numbers and etc. Husband's and wives "ran off" quite often. Benjamin Franklin married a woman whose husband had run off and abandoned her. Getting divorced was allowed even then during the colonial years as has ALWAYS been the case. But that didn't mean people did it.
People, under financial distress, often abandoned their own children when facing starvation. The orphanages were packed with such children. My own uncle during WW2 was abandoned by his mother. My great grandmother adopted him long before there ever was anything like social services.

People have been horrible to other people for thousands of years.

The infamous old Testament verse "I hate divorce sayeth the Lord" is a portion of a larger passage where God describes how he hates abuse more than divorce and how this practice of putting away a wife is abuse and bloodshed.

In the New Testament Jesus describes that those who put away their wives and force them to commit adultery to stay alive will be charged with their put away wife's adultery and not the put away wives themselves.
 

JohnDB

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The Ketuba was a contract created before the marriage (after the bride price had been agreed to) about the expected performance of the husband and the wife. Such things as the frequency of physical intimacy(manual jobs by husband and he was usually let off the hook more but if he was a paperwork type person it was a minimum of 5-6 times per week) dishwashing and cooking and salary expectations he was to earn.

Today it is akin to a prenuptial agreement.

But also included as fairly standard language was the divorce clause where he had to return the dowry to the wife in the event of a divorce. However, he could accuse her of cheating and kick her out...and largely get away with it. (Loophole)
 

Ronald Nolette

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I think you missed what I wrote about remarriage....................
[1Corinthians 7:15 KJV] 15 But if the unbelieving depart, let him depart. A brother or a sister is not under bondage in such [cases]: but God hath called us to peace.

If an unbelieving husband or wife leave the marriage, Paul under grace says to let them leave. If the marriage is dissolved the remaining spouse is not under the bondage of the law and is free to marry another, but only in the Lord (1 Corinthians 7:39). This can be seen in the verses below.

[1Corinthians 7:27-28 KJV] 27 Art thou bound unto a wife? seek not to be loosed. Art thou loosed from a wife? seek not a wife. 28 But and if thou marry, thou hast not sinned; and if a virgin marry, she hath not sinned. Nevertheless such shall have trouble in the flesh: but I spare you.

This does not nullify my understanding that adultery was not a sanction for divorce but what was under the law the result of divorce
Sorry but what God the son applies to us as well despite your hypotheses.
 

Doug

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Not in the least. I know how to separate what He spoke specifically to Jews and what was commended for all mankind to obey
That is what I have been saying all along........we can learn from what Jesus taught and commanded, but we werent meant to obey all he said.
For instance ..............[Jhn 3:16 KJV] 16 For God so loved the world, that he gave his only begotten Son, that whosoever believeth in him should not perish, but have everlasting life.............I dont think this is the best verse to give somebody to save them but, we can know that he is the Son of God and we are to believe on him for eternal life...................but we also have to believe that he died for our sins and rose for our justification

We dont have to sell all possessions............... [Luk 18:22 KJV] 22 Now when Jesus heard these things, he said unto him, Yet lackest thou one thing: sell all that thou hast, and distribute unto the poor, and thou shalt have treasure in heaven: and come, follow me.
 

Ronald Nolette

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That is what I have been saying all along........we can learn from what Jesus taught and commanded, but we werent meant to obey all he said.
For instance ..............[Jhn 3:16 KJV] 16 For God so loved the world, that he gave his only begotten Son, that whosoever believeth in him should not perish, but have everlasting life.............I dont think this is the best verse to give somebody to save them but, we can know that he is the Son of God and we are to believe on him for eternal life...................but we also have to believe that he died for our sins and rose for our justification
Then you need to get to know Jesus! That is the perfect verse to use

If you weren't so nit picky, you would see this message is for the world and that the "He gave" means His death and physical resurrection. If you know not enough to fill in the blanks, I am sorry for you.

There is no one verse that contains the entire gospel message of faith in His death, burial and physical resurrection for the full and only payment of our sin debt. And that by confessing and believing we are born again and given eternal life.
 

Doug

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If you weren't so nit picky, you would see this message is for the world and that the "He gave" means His death and physical resurrection.
Does it say this?
You are reading what you know from Paul into this verse
 

Ronald Nolette

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Does it say this?
You are reading what you know from Paul into this verse

John 3:16

King James Version

16 For God so loved the world, that he gave his only begotten Son, that whosoever believeth in him should not perish, but have everlasting life.

It says the world! And of course I use what else is written. Very very few verses alone give the necessary gospel message for salvation. One has to use the Bible and not just a single verse.

And I use what Jesus said, Paul wrote, John wrote, Peter wrote, and James.
 

Doug

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John 3:16​

King James Version​

16 For God so loved the world, that he gave his only begotten Son, that whosoever believeth in him should not perish, but have everlasting life.

It says the world! And of course I use what else is written. Very very few verses alone give the necessary gospel message for salvation. One has to use the Bible and not just a single verse.

And I use what Jesus said, Paul wrote, John wrote, Peter wrote, and James.
I wasnt talking about the "world"....... you were saying that in John 3:16 when it says "he gave" meant his death and resurrection....it doesnt say unless you use Paul as the other verses to uphold saying this,

Jesus only talked about his blood for the new testament which was only for Israel

Paul reveals his blood was for all
 

FredVB

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This study is in no way condemning people who have divorced. If they remarry, they need to know we do not condemn, disparage, or belittle the new marriage in any way but rather encourage them to devote themselves to it

I will attempt to discuss what scripture says about divorce under the law and under grace.

The following Biblical passages under consideration at first deal with divorce under the law.

Matthew 5:32 But I say unto you, That whosoever shall put away his wife, saving for the cause of fornication, causeth her to commit adultery: and whosoever shall marry her that is divorced committeth adultery.

This passage is explained by most as saying that if the wife commits fornication (relations outside of marriage), divorce is therefore sanctioned. Divorce therefore is biblically allowed only when there is fornication; fornication is the Biblical exception.

Was The Lord Jesus really saying that it was all right to divorce under these circumstances?

My understanding of the passages does not uphold this view. I understand the passage as not providing substantiation for divorce, but rather, embellishing on the fact that divorce causes adultery under the law. A husband that divorces his wife causes her to committ adultery when she marries another.

I understand The Lord Jesus to be saying that if the wife who has committed fornication by having sexual relations with someone other than her husband, is divorced,she can not be made to commit adultery by marrying someone else because she has already committed adultery on her own.
Under any other circumstances a wife that is divorced by her husband and then marries someone else is caused to commit adultery.
Also whosoever she marries commits adultery with her.

Fornication is not an exemption that allows the dissolution of a marriage but rather, unless adultery was preexistent, remarriage after divorce causes adultery.

Biblically, under the law, only death dissolves the marriage. God made provision under the law for divorce. This was put in place because of the sinfulness of mankind.

Jesus explained why God allowed divorce.

Matthew 19:8 He saith unto them, Moses because of the hardness of your hearts suffered you to put away your wives: but from the beginning it was not so.

The provision for divorce in Deuteronomy 24 below permitted divorce if a woman committed uncleanness, which included adultery and fornication. Verse 2 even allows a wife who is divorced to remarry.

Deuteronomy 24:1 When a man hath taken a wife, and married her, and it come to pass that she find no favor in his eyes, because he hath found some uncleanness in her: then let him write her a bill of divorcement, and give it in her hand, and send her out of his house.
24:2 And when she is departed out of his house, she may go and be another man's wife.

Christ was not applying Deuteronomy 24 in permitting divorce and remarriage in Matthew 19 below. Rather than sanctioning divorce, He was detailing the consequences of divorce. Divorce compounds and generates adultery.

Matthew 19:9 And I say unto you, Whosoever shall put away his wife, except it be for fornication, and shall marry another, committeth adultery: and whoso marrieth her which is put away doth commit adultery.

A cursory reading of this passage above would lend to the interpretation that the husband who divorces his wife on the grounds of fornication would not commit adultery by remarriage. It would appear as though these circumstances would afford an approved divorce. This however is not the case, as the phrase "and shall marry another" applies to both the husband, and the wife.

The husband that "shall marry another" shall commit adultery because divorce does not dissolve marriage. The divorced wife that performed fornication while married, if she "shall marry another", can not commit adultery solely by this new marriage since she has already committed adultery; she is already called an adulteress.The next husband that marries the divorced wife is also caused to commit adultery.

Mark 10:11 Whosoever shall put away his wife, and marry another, committeth adultery against her.
10:12 And if a woman shall put away her husband, and be married to another, she committeh adultery.

In the above verses both the divorcing husband and wife fall into adultery.

Luke 16:18 Whosoever putteth away his wife, and marrieth another, committeth adultery: and whosoever marrieth her that is put away from her husband committeth adultery.

Again there is no exception allowed in this passage to relieve the charge of adultery; whether husband or wife, if they divorce their spouse and marry another, they commit adultery.
Also, the new marriage partner of either husband or wife is likewise charged with committing adultery.

Under the law only death broke the marriage bond.

Romans 7:1-3 Know ye not, brethren,(for I speak to them that know the law,) how that the law hath dominion over a man as long as he liveth?
For the woman which hath an husband is bound by the law to her husband so long as he liveth; but if the husband be dead, she is loosed from the law of her husband.
So then if, while her husband liveth, she be married to another man, she shall be called an adulteress: but if her husband be dead, she is free from that law; so that she is no adulteress, though she be married to another man.

What does Paul say about marriage and divorce under grace. Allow me to say that grace was not exclusive to Paul. God has always been gracious. His grace can be seen in Deuteronomy 24 in making stipulations for divorce and the protection and provisions for the divorced wife.

[1Corinthians 7:10-11 KJV] 10 And unto the married I command, [yet] not I, but the Lord, Let not the wife depart from [her] husband: 11 But and if she depart, let her remain unmarried, or be reconciled to [her] husband: and let not the husband put away [his] wife.

Under grace Paul still upheld the view that God did not want husband and wife to be divorced, and that for our benefit and protection (Mark 10:9).

[1Corinthians 7:15 KJV] 15 But if the unbelieving depart, let him depart. A brother or a sister is not under bondage in such [cases]: but God hath called us to peace.

If an unbelieving husband or wife leave the marriage, Paul under grace says to let them leave. If the marriage is dissolved the remaining spouse is not under the bondage of the law and is free to marry another, but only in the Lord (1 Corinthians 7:39). This can be seen in the verses below.

[1Corinthians 7:27-28 KJV] 27 Art thou bound unto a wife? seek not to be loosed. Art thou loosed from a wife? seek not a wife. 28 But and if thou marry, thou hast not sinned; and if a virgin marry, she hath not sinned. Nevertheless such shall have trouble in the flesh: but I spare you.

Under grace Paul has been given instruction to convey to us in regard to marriage. Under grace, if we divorce, we are not said to be adulterers.

We are under grace, and in Christ Jesus, when we fail and sin we have complete forgiveness.

Ephesians 1:7 In whom we have redemption through his blood, the forgiveness of sins, according to the riches of his grace;

The exhortation for us, is to take a higher view of marriage, and minister grace to people who divorce.

Matthew 19:6 What therefore God hath joined together, let no man put asunder.

When this argument is used, that from law from the time of Moses what was different from how it was in the beginning was permitted for the hardened hearts of people, it should apply equally to any of it. I understand it that way. But I see others, and likely you, being inconsistent with that. All that way permitted that was not as it was in the beginning is for the sake of all those with heardened hearts. God is not willing that any would perish, but they should come to repentance, that is with response in faith. God is gracious and makes it as easy as it might be and yet effective, but God's will is higher and it is shown with the way it was in the beginning.
 

Doug

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When this argument is used, that from law from the time of Moses what was different from how it was in the beginning was permitted for the hardened hearts of people, it should apply equally to any of it. I understand it that way. But I see others, and likely you, being inconsistent with that. All that way permitted that was not as it was in the beginning is for the sake of all those with heardened hearts. God is not willing that any would perish, but they should come to repentance, that is with response in faith. God is gracious and makes it as easy as it might be and yet effective, but God's will is higher and it is shown with the way it was in the beginning.
Sorry I dont understand anything you said.....please clarify so I can attempt a response
 

Ronald Nolette

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I wasnt talking about the "world"....... you were saying that in John 3:16 when it says "he gave" meant his death and resurrection....it doesnt say unless you use Paul as the other verses to uphold saying this,

Jesus only talked about his blood for the new testament which was only for Israel

Paul reveals his blood was for all
You are a mess. Jesus said His blood was for all! Whoever taught you this myopic view of Scripture should be horse whipped for it is not of god.
 

Ronald Nolette

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Where? scripture please
I am sorry- bible gateway is your friend. If you do not know that jesus shed His blood for all mankind, you have no business trying to teach people here.

John 3:16, 1 John 2:2,

If jesus did not shed His blood for everyone then no one could be saved! His blood id the acceptable sacrifice for the whole world!
 

MatthewG

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I think God divorced israel and Jesus married the Spiritual birde of Christ.