[1John 2:2 KJV] 2 And he is the propitiation for our sins: and not for ours only, but also for [the sins of] the whole world.
It would seem to be apparent that this is a straightforward verse saying that Jesus's blood sacrifice reconciled the whole world to God, appeased his wrath, and could possibly not mean anything else. I am inclined to think this verse needs more examination to determine it's meaning.
It is beyond dispute that Christ put away sin by his sacrifice...........[Hebrews 9:26 KJV] 26 For then must he often have suffered since the foundation of the world: but now once in the end of the world hath he appeared to put away sin by the sacrifice of himself........The question remains as to whose sins were in view.
[Hebrews 9:15 KJV] 15 And for this cause he is the mediator of the new testament, that by means of death, for the redemption of the transgressions [that were] under the first testament, they which are called might receive the promise of eternal inheritance................According to this verse, Christ redeemed the sins of Israel committed under the old testament, NOT the sins of the whole world.
Hebrews 9:15 limits his sacrifice to redeem Israel while 1 John 2:2 says he is the propitiation for the sins of the whole world. How can this be understood? We need to examine what is meant to be "the world".
Is there in scripture reference to only one use of the "world"? We can see from these passages that when scripture speaks of the world, it isn't limited to this present world............[2Peter 2:5 KJV] 5 And spared not the old world, but saved Noah the eighth [person], a preacher of righteousness, bringing in the flood upon the world of the ungodly;........Peter says there was an "old world" distinguished from this present world. The same can be said of this verse............[2Peter 3:6 KJV] 6 Whereby the world that then was, being overflowed with water, perished:........it is said there was a world spoken of that "was", which is not speaking of this present world.
This present world will pass away...........[1John 2:16-17 KJV] 16 For all that [is] in the world, the lust of the flesh, and the lust of the eyes, and the pride of life, is not of the Father, but is of the world. 17 And the world passeth away, and the lust thereof: but he that doeth the will of God abideth for ever.
[Psalms 22:27-28 KJV] 27 All the ends of the world shall remember and turn unto the LORD: and all the kindreds of the nations shall worship before thee. 28 For the kingdom [is] the LORD'S: and he [is] the governor among the nations...........There is a coming kingdom, in which, the Lord Jesus will reign over the nations. There is the present world, and a world to come............[Matthew 12:32 KJV] 32 And whosoever speaketh a word against the Son of man, it shall be forgiven him: but whosoever speaketh against the Holy Ghost, it shall not be forgiven him, neither in this world, neither in the [world] to come.
[Mark 10:30 KJV] 30 But he shall receive an hundredfold now in this time, houses, and brethren, and sisters, and mothers, and children, and lands, with persecutions; and in the world to come eternal life.
[Luke 18:30 KJV] 30 Who shall not receive manifold more in this present time, and in the world to come life everlasting.
[Luke 20:34-35 KJV] 34 And Jesus answering said unto them, The children of this world marry, and are given in marriage: 35 But they which shall be accounted worthy to obtain that world, and the resurrection from the dead, neither marry, nor are given in marriage:...............The world to come is when Jesus comes again to reign on the earth in his kingdom as the "governor among the nations".
It is incumbent for us to think about what world was John speaking of when he said Jesus was "the propitiation for our sins: and not for ours only, but also for [the sins of] the whole world". The coming world could possibly be the world John spoke of.
It should be noted that in other verses in 1 John he does not speak of Jesus being the propitiation for the sins of the world. He speaks only of "our sins". ...............[1John 3:5 KJV] 5 And ye know that he was manifested to take away our sins; and in him is no sin.
[1John 4:10 KJV] 10 Herein is love, not that we loved God, but that he loved us, and sent his Son [to be] the propitiation for our sins.
[Revelation 1:5 KJV] 5 And from Jesus Christ, [who is] the faithful witness, [and] the first begotten of the dead, and the prince of the kings of the earth. Unto him that loved us, and washed us from our sins in his own blood,
It would seem to be apparent that this is a straightforward verse saying that Jesus's blood sacrifice reconciled the whole world to God, appeased his wrath, and could possibly not mean anything else. I am inclined to think this verse needs more examination to determine it's meaning.
It is beyond dispute that Christ put away sin by his sacrifice...........[Hebrews 9:26 KJV] 26 For then must he often have suffered since the foundation of the world: but now once in the end of the world hath he appeared to put away sin by the sacrifice of himself........The question remains as to whose sins were in view.
[Hebrews 9:15 KJV] 15 And for this cause he is the mediator of the new testament, that by means of death, for the redemption of the transgressions [that were] under the first testament, they which are called might receive the promise of eternal inheritance................According to this verse, Christ redeemed the sins of Israel committed under the old testament, NOT the sins of the whole world.
Hebrews 9:15 limits his sacrifice to redeem Israel while 1 John 2:2 says he is the propitiation for the sins of the whole world. How can this be understood? We need to examine what is meant to be "the world".
Is there in scripture reference to only one use of the "world"? We can see from these passages that when scripture speaks of the world, it isn't limited to this present world............[2Peter 2:5 KJV] 5 And spared not the old world, but saved Noah the eighth [person], a preacher of righteousness, bringing in the flood upon the world of the ungodly;........Peter says there was an "old world" distinguished from this present world. The same can be said of this verse............[2Peter 3:6 KJV] 6 Whereby the world that then was, being overflowed with water, perished:........it is said there was a world spoken of that "was", which is not speaking of this present world.
This present world will pass away...........[1John 2:16-17 KJV] 16 For all that [is] in the world, the lust of the flesh, and the lust of the eyes, and the pride of life, is not of the Father, but is of the world. 17 And the world passeth away, and the lust thereof: but he that doeth the will of God abideth for ever.
[Psalms 22:27-28 KJV] 27 All the ends of the world shall remember and turn unto the LORD: and all the kindreds of the nations shall worship before thee. 28 For the kingdom [is] the LORD'S: and he [is] the governor among the nations...........There is a coming kingdom, in which, the Lord Jesus will reign over the nations. There is the present world, and a world to come............[Matthew 12:32 KJV] 32 And whosoever speaketh a word against the Son of man, it shall be forgiven him: but whosoever speaketh against the Holy Ghost, it shall not be forgiven him, neither in this world, neither in the [world] to come.
[Mark 10:30 KJV] 30 But he shall receive an hundredfold now in this time, houses, and brethren, and sisters, and mothers, and children, and lands, with persecutions; and in the world to come eternal life.
[Luke 18:30 KJV] 30 Who shall not receive manifold more in this present time, and in the world to come life everlasting.
[Luke 20:34-35 KJV] 34 And Jesus answering said unto them, The children of this world marry, and are given in marriage: 35 But they which shall be accounted worthy to obtain that world, and the resurrection from the dead, neither marry, nor are given in marriage:...............The world to come is when Jesus comes again to reign on the earth in his kingdom as the "governor among the nations".
It is incumbent for us to think about what world was John speaking of when he said Jesus was "the propitiation for our sins: and not for ours only, but also for [the sins of] the whole world". The coming world could possibly be the world John spoke of.
It should be noted that in other verses in 1 John he does not speak of Jesus being the propitiation for the sins of the world. He speaks only of "our sins". ...............[1John 3:5 KJV] 5 And ye know that he was manifested to take away our sins; and in him is no sin.
[1John 4:10 KJV] 10 Herein is love, not that we loved God, but that he loved us, and sent his Son [to be] the propitiation for our sins.
[Revelation 1:5 KJV] 5 And from Jesus Christ, [who is] the faithful witness, [and] the first begotten of the dead, and the prince of the kings of the earth. Unto him that loved us, and washed us from our sins in his own blood,
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