Indeed!
Since the same word you mentioned is an angel is the Greek [
angelos], and simply meant, means, and will mean “
messenger,” this is an easy task. For example, consider that John the Baptist is called an [
angelos] sent by God in Matthew 11:10.
Matthew 11:10-11
- "For this is he, of whom it is written, Behold, I send my messenger before thy face, which shall prepare thy way before thee.
- Verily I say unto you, Among them that are born of women there hath not risen a greater than John the Baptist: notwithstanding he that is least in the kingdom of heaven is greater than he."
If it hadn't been so "obviously" clear this was John the Baptist, the translators would have most assuredly changed this word to an angel as well.
Because they decided based upon what they felt was a supernatural being, and "NOT" by translating the word accurately. However, the [
angelos] of God sent to go before Christ is not a created begin that they called, "angel" of God sent to go before man any more than [
angelos] the message in Revelation 1:20 was sent to! Why would John need to correct and instruct an angel? It's not an literal angel but the
messengers of God's church that needed correcting and instructing. The passage I gave you of John the Baptist is the same [
angelos] or messenger of God--
a man. They asked for one place, I gave them one place, but I'm sure it will be insufficient to prove to them [
angelos] does not mean angel, but messenger. Nevertheless, Biblical facts are facts, not personal opinions. Even if the messenger of God "was" in fact an angel, the actual word would still not "mean" angel. Selah.