It does beg a question, I suppose.
If a man and wife become one flesh, how does that apply when there is more than one wife?
Especially if having sexual intercourse creates that bond. Are not souls united in the sex act?
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Very good question, and thank you for that. It's a thoughtful inquiry.
1 Corinthians 6:16 What? know ye not that he which is joined to an harlot is one body? for two, saith he, shall be one flesh.
I caution those out there of the feministic bent to be careful about trying to twist this passage into anything other than what it says. Note that the context doesn't stipulate that the man joining with the harlot had to be single in order to be one flesh with yet another woman; this case being a harlot. It's comparative to any joining a man partakes with any number of women. Remember, nothing in that context limits his becoming one flesh with that harlot as his having to have been single. His sexual relations with them all is a matter of his having become one flesh with them all, which is why fornication creates such a cacophony of confusing arrays of having become one flesh with women also joining with other men in succession.
Polyandry is precisely the biblical definition of adultery, coupled with a man joining with another man's wife and becoming a partaker of her adulteries, never stated as his having become the instigator of it. I know the feminists will scream loud about that and bring up all manner of misapplications of scripture to "prove their point," but that is what it is. The Bible is only loved by most when it states what most want to hear.
Additionally, if it were impossible for a man to be one flesh with more than one woman, then one would have to claim Abraham was not one flesh with all his wives and concubines, thus his being guilty of fornication, which would lead to our seeing him burning in the pits of Hell...and I'm pretty sure nobody here is willing to align with that sentiment...or...
BTW