Does the "husband of one wife" requirement mean that polygamy was common in the early church?

[St. SteVen]

Why does the Apostle Paul require that
church Elders be the "husband of one wife" if
polygamy wasn't common in the church?

Titus 1:5-6 ESV
This is why I left you in Crete, so that you might
put what remained into order, and appoint elders in every town as I directed you—
6 if anyone is above reproach, the husband of one wife,[a]
and his children are believers[b] and not open to the charge of debauchery or insubordination.

~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~

As I understand it, polygamy laws are supposedly based on the Bible.

Does the "husband of one wife" requirement mean that polygamy was common in the early church?

When did this change?

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[Rockerduck]

It was the Apostle Paul who put forth the doctrine of bishops, elders, and deacons. He did this under his Apostolic authority, that Jesus called him to do. A lot of church's use this to mean you cannot be divorced and remarried, but that's not true, else the Apostle Paul would have added "and not divorced". This also required a marriage to be a pastor or deacon. And yes, there were everything then, as it is now. Paul by his revelations from Christ, put forth the doctrine of Christian marriage.

 

[1stCenturyLady]

I think Jesus put it back to the original, so no, the early church did not do polygamy. Also, two Christians could not divorce one another. 1 Cor. 7 (This is why my ex-husband was the last man I ever kissed in 2001. I am now the founding member of The Eunuch's Club!

Mt. 19
4 And He answered and said to them, “Have you not read that He who made them at the beginning ‘made them male and female,’ 5 and said, ‘For this reason a man shall leave his father and mother and be joined to his wife, and the two shall become one flesh’? 6 So then, they are no longer two but one flesh. Therefore what God has joined together, let not man separate.”

7 They said to Him, “Why then did Moses command to give a certificate of divorce, and to put her away?”

8 He said to them, “Moses, because of the hardness of your hearts, permitted you to divorce your wives, but from the beginning it was not so. 9 And I say to you, whoever divorces his wife, except for sexual immorality, and marries another, commits adultery; and whoever marries her who is divorced commits adultery.”

 

[St. SteVen]

It was the Apostle Paul who put forth the doctrine of bishops, elders, and deacons. He did this under his Apostolic authority, that Jesus called him to do.

That's an interesting point, thanks.

A lot of church's use this to mean you cannot be divorced and remarried, but that's not true, else the Apostle Paul would have added "and not divorced".

Yes, that seems to be a product of western culture. To take a dim view of divorce and remarriage.

This also required a marriage to be a pastor or deacon.

I wonder if that is a misunderstanding on our part.

And yes, there were everything then, as it is now.

What would that include?

Paul by his revelations from Christ, put forth the doctrine of Christian marriage.

Wasn't that already a part of Judaism? Genesis chapter two.

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[Deborah_]

As I understand it, polygamy laws are supposedly based on the Bible.

Does the "husband of one wife" requirement mean that polygamy was common in the early church?

When did this change?

The church in Crete was new, and its members were all recent converts. So it means that polygamy was common in Cretan society, not that it was a feature of the church!

There is a similar situation in many parts of the world today. Men who already have more than one wife may be converted. Should they then be appointed to positions of leadership? No.

 

[St. SteVen]

I think Jesus put it back to the original, so no, the early church did not do polygamy. Also, two Christians could not divorce one another. 1 Cor. 7 (This is why my ex-husband was the last man I ever kissed in 2001.

Why the requirement for "husband of one wife" if polygamy was not present?
I don't think the scripture you posted below prohibited divorce.
But it did clarify the consequences.

Unfortunately, there are victims today.
How many Christians have been "disqualified" for ministry
when a spouse divorced them against their will?

I am now the founding member of The Eunuch's Club!

Do you have a chapter in Ethiopia? - LOL

Mt. 19
4 And He answered and said to them, “Have you not read that He who made them at the beginning ‘made them male and female,’ 5 and said, ‘For this reason a man shall leave his father and mother and be joined to his wife, and the two shall become one flesh’? 6 So then, they are no longer two but one flesh. Therefore what God has joined together, let not man separate.”

7 They said to Him, “Why then did Moses command to give a certificate of divorce, and to put her away?”

8 He said to them, “Moses, because of the hardness of your hearts, permitted you to divorce your wives, but from the beginning it was not so. 9 And I say to you, whoever divorces his wife, except for sexual immorality, and marries another, commits adultery; and whoever marries her who is divorced commits adultery.”

I posted this on another topic. Thought you might find it interesting.
It addresses divorce specifically, but could apply to polygamy.
Let me know your thoughts, thanks.
~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~

I'm glad you brought up Matthew chapter 19.
It contains a perfect example of what I am saying about
how we imprint our western values on the Bible.

What does the church say is the ONLY grounds for divorce? Adultery, right?
Compare Matthew 19:9 in both the NIV with the KJV below. Notice anything different? (fornication)

Jesus said "except it be for fornication, not adultery. (as the church claims)
The NIV gets this wrong, the KJV gets this right. Check the NT Greek.

See Deuteronomy 22:13-18 below to see what the law says about this.
This is what Jesus was referring to.

All this to say that our western Christian social views do not always coincide with the Bible.
Notice that the bride is treated like bad merchandise in Deuteronomy 22:13-18. Property of her parents.

Matthew 19:9 NIV
I tell you that anyone who divorces his wife, except for sexual immorality,
and marries another woman commits adultery.”

Matthew 19:9 KJV
And I say unto you, Whosoever shall put away his wife, except it be for fornication,
and shall marry another, committeth adultery: and whoso marrieth her which is put away doth commit adultery.

Deuteronomy 22:13-18 NIV
If a man takes a wife and, after sleeping with her, dislikes her
14 and slanders her and gives her a bad name, saying,
“I married this woman, but when I approached her,
I did not find proof of her virginity,”
15 then the young woman’s father and mother shall bring
to the town elders at the gate proof that she was a virgin.
16 Her father will say to the elders,
“I gave my daughter in marriage to this man, but he dislikes her.
17 Now he has slandered her and said,
‘I did not find your daughter to be a virgin.’
But here is the proof of my daughter’s virginity.”
Then her parents shall display the cloth before the elders of the town,
18 and the elders shall take the man and punish him.

/

 

[Lambano]

Was polygamy practiced in first century Jewish or Greco-Roman culture? I'm can't think of any mention in the New Testament of any men who had multiple wives. Herod?

The works of Josephus are online. Maybe I should check there.

 

[St. SteVen]

The church in Crete was new, and its members were all recent converts. So it means that polygamy was common in Cretan society, not that it was a feature of the church!

That's a good insight, thanks.

There is a similar situation in many parts of the world today. Men who already have more than one wife may be converted. Should they then be appointed to positions of leadership? No.

By the same token, do you believe a leader must be married? No single leaders?

I know this is an issue for young men who are following a call to ministry. They have to get married first.
Not always the best situation.

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[St. SteVen]

... my ex-husband was the last man I ever kissed in 2001.

Was that a goodbye kiss? - LOL

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[St. SteVen]

Jesus was known as "the Son of David". Did Jesus (or anyone) ever criticize David for his polygamy?
David was known as "a man after God's own heart".

Matthew 21:15 NIV
But when the chief priests and the teachers of the law saw the wonderful things he did and the children
shouting in the temple courts, “Hosanna to the Son of David,” they were indignant.

/

 

[JohnDB]

The letter was written by Paul to Timothy...his apprentice. Not a formal letter written to an entire church body. So some colloquium were used within the contents.

In Roman society plural marriage was NOT common as it was inside of Jewish society. In fact it was extremely distasteful.

A wife was chosen often for political or business advantages.
The husband often would have at least one consort if not many. These "consorts" or girlfriends were a recognized position in Roman society. Occasionally they lived in the same house as the man with the wife. Because often the men loved these women and where the children wouldn't be heirs normally they sometimes were adopted by the man to become an heir.

The wives were people too....and because of the lack of love they often were extremely disrespectful towards their husband's. Notice the letter to the Ephesians.

So....when setting up a Church with elders...Paul wanted Timothy to exclude the men with consorts from being elders within the church. The label of "wives" was more of a backhanded insult than anything else upon Roman culture.

 

[Rockerduck]

The letter was written by Paul to Timothy...his apprentice. Not a formal letter written to an entire church body. So some colloquium were used within the contents.

In Roman society plural marriage was NOT common as it was inside of Jewish society. In fact it was extremely distasteful.

A wife was chosen often for political or business advantages.
The husband often would have at least one consort if not many. These "consorts" or girlfriends were a recognized position in Roman society. Occasionally they lived in the same house as the man with the wife. Because often the men loved these women and where the children wouldn't be heirs normally they sometimes were adopted by the man to become an heir.

The wives were people too....and because of the lack of love they often were extremely disrespectful towards their husband's. Notice the letter to the Ephesians.

So....when setting up a Church with elders...Paul wanted Timothy to exclude the men with consorts from being elders within the church. The label of "wives" was more of a backhanded insult than anything else upon Roman culture.

All of the Apostle Paul's letters were meant to be copied and sent to all the church's.

2 Peter 3:15-16 - And remember, our Lord’s patience gives people time to be saved. This is what our beloved brother Paul also wrote to you with the wisdom God gave him; 16 speaking of these things in all of his letters. Some of his comments are hard to understand, and those who are ignorant and unstable have twisted his letters to mean something quite different, just as they do with other parts of Scripture. And this will result in their destruction.

 

[Rockerduck]

That's an interesting point, thanks.


Yes, that seems to be a product of western culture. To take a dim view of divorce and remarriage.


I wonder if that is a misunderstanding on our part.


What would that include?


Wasn't that already a part of Judaism? Genesis chapter two.

/

There is polygamy now around the world, the same as it was then. Gays and Lesbians were there back then and now. All deviant sex was under Baal worship. The Apostle Paul brought to all society, the standard of a Christian marriage, which is still today.

 

[St. SteVen]

The letter was written by Paul to Timothy...his apprentice. Not a formal letter written to an entire church body. So some colloquium were used within the contents.

Great post, thanks.
Interesting that we use the requirements for elder for the entire church body now.
Including the "man of one wife" aspect. Which some extend to exclude remarried men.

In Roman society plural marriage was NOT common as it was inside of Jewish society. In fact it was extremely distasteful.

So, polygamy was common in Judaism?
Do we suppose that means the "man of one wife" aspect was not enforced on Jewish Christian churches?

The husband often would have at least one consort if not many. These "consorts" or girlfriends were a recognized position in Roman society. Occasionally they lived in the same house as the man with the wife.

We would know these "consorts" or girlfriends as concubines.
Basically women "owned" as prostitutes. (sex slaves)

I remember reading that Jewish men would have a wife for linage and concubines for pleasure.

The wives were people too....and because of the lack of love they often were extremely disrespectful towards their husband's. Notice the letter to the Ephesians.

What does it say in Ephesian about this?

So....when setting up a Church with elders...Paul wanted Timothy to exclude the men with consorts from being elders within the church. The label of "wives" was more of a backhanded insult than anything else upon Roman culture.

How could the men with consorts (concubines) be excluded if the requirement only specified the number of wives?
Aren't we imposing our western cultural values on the situation to assume that?

/

 

[St. SteVen]

There is polygamy now around the world, the same as it was then. Gays and Lesbians were there back then and now. All deviant sex was under Baal worship. The Apostle Paul brought to all society, the standard of a Christian marriage, which is still today.

I wonder how much of what we consider to be "deviant sex" is more a reflection of western societal values,
and the misinterpretation of scripture, than a real concern to God? Did God care that King David was a polygamist?

You wrote: "All deviant sex was under Baal worship."
Wasn't polygamy common in Judaism? What would that have to do with Baal worship?
Also discussed here on this topic is "consorts" (concubines) also common.

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[Lambano]

One of the local (non-denominational) pastors here is the wife of just one wife....

No, no, no, Lambano! Don't open THAT can of worms! Or women pastors who are the wife of just one husband. (Why would they want two?) We're talking about polygamy in the first century. Bad Lambano! Bad! Bad!

The Wikipedia article says the practice existed, but it was in decline at the time. It's mostly deduced from its prohibition both in Christian writings and in the Dead Sea Scrolls. I still would prefer more direct evidence.

 

[MatthewG]

Having two wives always caused more problems. Remember when Sarah was like, well its taking a little while, let's go ahead and give you this maidservant to sleep with and have a son. Then Sarah was indignant when the maidservant got preganant and was mean to her. There was also the mother of Sameul, who was with a man named Elknah (i think), also had another wife which was always mean to Hannah, and made fun of because she had no children. 1Cent, I would agree with. Jesus put it back to the way it was suppose to be. One man, and one woman, God made the template to follow if one chooses to right there in the Garden.

 

[MatthewG]

There are many people that try to do this today, I could only imagine how hard it is to handle to juggle around multiple wives, even multiple families, going back and forth and keeping things either out in the open or completely secret. Many boyfriends, and girlfriends, try to get another member in along with rather than maybe putting more focus and attention towards Yahava. Idk.

 

[St. SteVen]

I still would prefer more direct evidence.

Thanks. Let us know if you find something. I appreciate your work on this.
AND your awesome sense of humor. - LOL

We, the church, seem to be getting ahead of the women in leadership issue.
And there is progress on the LGBT issue. Maybe polygamy is next?



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[JohnDB]

Great post, thanks.
Interesting that we use the requirements for elder for the entire church body now.
Including the "man of one wife" aspect. Which some extend to exclude remarried men.


So, polygamy was common in Judaism?
Do we suppose that means the "man of one wife" aspect was not enforced on Jewish Christian churches?


We would know these "consorts" or girlfriends as concubines.
Basically women "owned" as prostitutes. (sex slaves)

I remember reading that Jewish men would have a wife for linage and concubines for pleasure.


What does it say in Ephesian about this?


How could the men with consorts (concubines) be excluded if the requirement only specified the number of wives?
Aren't we imposing our western cultural values on the situation to assume that?

/

When Paul wrote to the Church at Ephesus (where Timothy was serving as an Apostle ) he told the Ephesian men to "love their wives" and for women to "respect their husbands" .

Both of these directives were outside the box of normality.

Sex slaves were common. But a sex slave wasn't generally used for personal use (concubine) but for general population usage or rented out for parties or temples.

Orgies were a part of Roman life inside of Hellenization and gods worship. Pan, half goat half man, was a fertility god that was worshipped to bring good fortune and wealth. (Big ugly nose for scaring off conflict gods)