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My understanding is that marriage for believers is a concession to the flesh to prevent fornication. It's not sin at all as long as lechery and excesses aren't brought to the marriage bed.....otherwise that would be idolatry. And I wonder if perhaps the natural man without God naturally tends to polygamy, however knowing the Lord helps to temper the flesh, or ought to.(15) "On the Numerous Progeny of the Ancients". This work is referred to by Eusebius twice, in the "Præp. Ev.", VII, 8, and in the "Dem. Ev.", VII, 8; and also (Lightfoot and Harnack think) by St. Basil (On the Holy Spirit 29), where he says, "I draw attention to his [Eusebius's] words in discussing the difficulties started in connexion with ancient polygamy." Arguing from St. Basil's words, Lightfoot thinks that in this treatise Eusebius dealt with the difficulty presented by the Patriarchs possessing more than one wife. But he overlooked the reference in the "Dem. Ev.", from which it would appear that the difficulty dealt with was, perhaps, a more general one, viz., the contrast presented by the desire of the Patriarchs for a numerous offspring and the honour in which continence was held by Christians.
CATHOLIC ENCYCLOPEDIA: Eusebius of Caesarea
Biographical article on the 'Father of Church History.'www.newadvent.org
Chapter 17 [XV.]— What is Sinless in the Use of Matrimony? What is Attended With Venial Sin, and What with Mortal?
It is, however, one thing for married persons to have intercourse only for the wish to beget children, which is not sinful: it is another thing for them to desire carnal pleasure in cohabitation, but with the spouse only, which involves venial sin. For although propagation of offspring is not the motive of the intercourse, there is still no attempt to prevent such propagation, either by wrong desire or evil appliance. They who resort to these, although called by the name of spouses, are really not such; they retain no vestige of true matrimony, but pretend the honourable designation as a cloak for criminal conduct. Having also proceeded so far, they are betrayed into exposing their children, which are born against their will.
CHURCH FATHERS: On Marriage and Concupiscence, Book I (Augustine)
Featuring the Church Fathers, Catholic Encyclopedia, Summa Theologica and more.www.newadvent.org
Thanks for pointing this out. This directly contradicts the bible. Since there are things in the Koran which directly contradict the bible and deny the deity of Christ it cannot be of God period. The Hebrew scriptures make direct mention of God's son ......they are God-breathed writings and give witness to Christ, as do of course the writings of the new testament. The testimony of Jesus Christ is the very spirit of prophecy, and the whole bible is a prophetic book, in the sense of being God's inspired message to mankind....Jesus Himself confirmed that the scriptures testify about Him.[He is] Originator of the heavens and the earth. How could He have a son when He does not have a companion and He created all things? And He is, of all things, Knowing.
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Verses from the qur'an about Allah has no son
Read the verses from the Qur'an which mention Allah (swt) being alone without a partner or son (total of 13 ayat/verses).myislam.org
More contradiction of the truth as given to us in the holy scriptures. I gather that @soberxp believes the church made a mistake in believing in the deity of Christ and thinks that the Koran corrects that "mistake". Unfortunately that is a deception.(4:171) People of the Book! Do not exceed the limits in your religion, and attribute to Allah nothing except the truth. The Messiah, Jesus, son of Mary, was only a Messenger of Allah, and His command that He conveyed unto Mary, and a spirit from Him (which led to Mary's conception).
Quran 4:157 states that Jesus was not killed or crucified, but that it was made to appear that way to his would-be executioners.
(3:55) (And it was part of His scheme) when Allah said: 'O Jesus! I will recall you51 and raise you up to Me and will purify you (of the company) of those who disbelieve,52 and will set your followers above the unbelievers till the Day of Resurrection. Then to Me you shall return, and I will judge between you regarding what you differed.
51. The expression used is mutawaffika. The original meaning of tawaffa is to take and receive. To 'seize a person's sou!' constitutes the figurative rather than the literal meaning of the word.
Surah Ali 'Imran 3:55-57 - Towards Understanding the Quran - Quran Translation Commentary - Tafheem ul Quran
Towards Understanding the Quranwww.islamicstudies.info
It was to demonstrate His unspeakably generous and selfless love for mankind......and my friend, there is no greater love than His. "For God so loved the world that he gave His only begotten son, that whosoever believes on Him would never perish but would have everlasting life". "There is no greater love than that a man lay down his life for a friend." Come to Jesus....receive and believe in Him....He is the only way to salvation and eternal life. Jesus says, "Come unto me, you who are weary, and I will give you rest."Boring, as I don't know it.
Why did not God create an angel then send him on the cross ? (因为天使是永生的.)
I ran into that on the mission field in south america. down htere the ladies lived in group homes for saftety. ouch shoulder.My understanding is that marriage for believers is a concession to the flesh to prevent fornication. It's not sin at all as long as lechery and excesses aren't brought to the marriage bed.....otherwise that would be idolatry. And I wonder if perhaps the natural man without God naturally tends to polygamy, however knowing the Lord helps to temper the flesh, or ought to.
In harsh times and places when there is a shortage of men to go around for the women, a man having more than one wife to protect and provide and give them children was actually a kindness to the women. But from what I remember, according to the bible each wife was to be provided with their own dwelling (or tent) and household, not live in a kind of dormitory with the other wife or wives.
Since Loader did not believe Jesus is God, anything from him is garbage.
God does not require a sinner to believe in The Deity of Christ, before He will save them... so, this means that God does not require a Christian to believe in the Deity of Christ.
Should a Christian believe that Jesus is The God-man?
Of course....but to believe this is not required for Salvation.
People dont go to Hell for not believing in The Deity of Christ......they go to Hell for not believing in Jesus The Christ at all.
This is why they go to hell.
John 3:36.
@The Learner
You don't really think Jesus died on the cross, do you? Isn't it for us to die on the cross, Jesus Christ did not die on the cross, but rose again.
He is alive now,so that Book says he was not dead, cuz he is alive now. The cross thing just a show for some reason.
I think that is why Jesus Christ said someone is blind leading the blind.
Agree.Given that philosophical vantagepoint and also given that all who ever had a spark of life on this earth are all still consciously alive right now and beyond, one of many conclusions could be that nobody ever truly dies in the spiritual sense.
Agree.So, semantic word games generally ensue over what death really is. It ends up being akin to a snake eating its own tail to gain nourishment while killing itself in the process. Physical death is what it is...the cessation of these earthly bodies to continue functioning.
This where we have a difference of opinion.The Creator of all determined that threshold, on the basis of His sense of perfect justice, sufficient to atone for the sins of all who call upon His Name.
I guess you are partly right, Jesus’ death on the cross was to show/demonstrate His love for us. And He did die…..at least His body did. For without the shedding of blood there is no remission of sins. This was always God’s plan and foreknowledge…..He knowingly ordained a Law that no man could fully keep, and the Law required the shedding of blood. Jesus’ death on the cross was to demonstrate the love of God for us, and also very importantly to fulfill the Law on our behalf by atoning for our sins..@The Learner
You don't really think Jesus died on the cross, do you? Isn't it for us to die on the cross, Jesus Christ did not die on the cross, but rose again.
He is alive now,so that Book says he was not dead, cuz he is alive now. The cross thing just a show for some reason.
I think that is why Jesus Christ said someone is blind leading the blind.
Agree.
"... nobody ever truly dies in the spiritual sense." - BTW
Agree.
When we see the words "death" and "life" in the Bible we need to determine whether it refers to physical or spiritual life or death.
This where we have a difference of opinion.
1 John 2:2 NIV
He is the atoning sacrifice for our sins, and not only for ours but also for the sins of the whole world.
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So, it's good to see the rejection of elements added to what Paul, THE apostle to the Gentiles and THE minister of the Gospel of Grace, clearly stated.
I separate the atonement from salvation itself.Systematic Theology kicks in at this point, which is a panoramic view of scripture as opposed to the pick-n-choose singular verses upon which to try and build a theology that cannot withstand the gale force winds of testing for falsehood. What that verse you quoted says in relation to all others on this topic is that the shed Blood of Christ is indeed sufficient to atone for ALL the sins of all mankind:
1 Corinthians 15:1-4
1 Moreover, brethren, I declare unto you the gospel which I preached unto you, which also ye have received, and wherein ye stand;
2 By which also ye are saved, if ye keep in memory what I preached unto you, unless ye have believed in vain.
3 For I delivered unto you first of all that which I also received, how that Christ died for our sins according to the scriptures;
4 And that he was buried, and that he rose again the third day according to the scriptures:
How does that work?
Ephesians 2:8 For by grace are ye saved through faith; and that not of yourselves: it is the gift of God:
And he also continued:
Ephesians 2:9 Not of works, lest any man should boast.
So, the prerequisite for receiving the gift of grace (unmerited favor) unto salvation requires faith rather than works. Should our salvation be based upon our own efforts of works, we could then boast, which is diabolically opposed to the sufficiency in the Blood of Christ. Boasting leads to pride, which the Lord hates. Those religions out there that pile on works through sacraments and other efforts of human strength, they are false and anti-scriptuiral.
So, the house of cards built from just that one verse in John is now a flattened pile of...cards.
He is the atoning sacrifice for our sins, and not only for ours but also for the sins of the whole world.
Salvation is about the saving of the soul/body. Jesus said to fear Him who can destroy both body and soul in Gehenna (lake of fire). The spirit returns to God who gave it. As I understand this, for the inheritors of eternal life their spirit returns to their body in the resurrection. For those who don't inherit eternal life their spirit is not returned in the end.Agree.
"... nobody ever truly dies in the spiritual sense." - BTW
One must be in IN Christ to be saved, because salvation is THROUGH Him, through His Spirit, not apart from Him. If anyone has not His Spirit they are none of His, the scripture says. Yes He died for the sins of the whole world, meaning for the sins of not the Jews only but the Gentiles also, whosoever will receive and believe in Christ of them all.This where we have a difference of opinion.
1 John 2:2 NIV
He is the atoning sacrifice for our sins, and not only for ours but also for the sins of the whole world.
What if someone put his faith in devil but thinking he put faith in Jesus?The offer of Jesus's Shed Blood is universal, but the application of the offer, is this..
"All who Believe In Jesus"......"All who Call on the Name of Jesus"......shall be saved.
And you have to put that Faith in Christ, before you die, as God wont accept it in Hell.
In asking/saying, "Why do you call me good, there is none good but the Father", He was hinting that He was God. Because Jesus certainly was good, wasn't He?Jesus said why you call me good?
Jesus said why you call me god?
Jesus is word of God,the word of God is good @jesus Christ.In asking/saying, "Why do you call me good, there is none good but the Father", He was hinting that He was God. Because Jesus certainly was good, wasn't He?