I will raise them on the last day.

[Aunty Jane]

Yes! He was from the beginning and is eternal.He is in the Old Testament and the New.

God said to Moses, “I am who I am.” And he said, “Say this to the people of Israel: ‘I am has sent me to you.’”
What Does the Bible Say About I Am?
Jesus said to them, “Truly, truly, I say to you, before Abraham was, I am.”

Have you ever read that verse in Exodus from the Jewish Tanakh? It doesn’t say what you think it does...and certainly not how Christendom’s Bible translators have rendered it.

This is what Exodus 3:13-15 says from the Complete Jewish Bible.....Exodus3:13-15...

13 And Moses said to God, "Behold I come to the children of Israel, and I say to them, 'The God of your fathers has sent me to you,' and they say to me, 'What is His name?' what shall I say to them?"		יגוַיֹּ֨אמֶר משֶׁ֜ה אֶל־הָֽאֱלֹהִ֗ים הִנֵּ֨ה אָֽנֹכִ֣י בָא֘ אֶל־בְּנֵ֣י יִשְׂרָאֵל֒ וְאָֽמַרְתִּ֣י לָהֶ֔ם אֱלֹהֵ֥י אֲבֽוֹתֵיכֶ֖ם שְׁלָחַ֣נִי אֲלֵיכֶ֑ם וְאָֽמְרוּ־לִ֣י מַה־שְּׁמ֔וֹ מָ֥ה אֹמַ֖ר אֲלֵהֶֽם:
14 God said to Moses, "Ehyeh asher ehyeh (I will be what I will be)," and He said, "So shall you say to the children of Israel, 'Ehyeh (I will be) has sent me to you.'"		ידוַיֹּ֤אמֶר אֱלֹהִים֙ אֶל־משֶׁ֔ה אֶֽהְיֶ֖ה אֲשֶׁ֣ר אֶֽהְיֶ֑ה וַיֹּ֗אמֶר כֹּ֤ה תֹאמַר֙ לִבְנֵ֣י יִשְׂרָאֵ֔ל אֶֽהְיֶ֖ה שְׁלָחַ֥נִי אֲלֵיכֶֽם:
15 And God said further to Moses, "So shall you say to the children of Israel, 'The Lord God of your forefathers, the God of Abraham, the God of Isaac, and the God of Jacob, has sent me to you.' This is My name forever, and this is how I should be mentioned in every generation.		טווַיֹּ֩אמֶר֩ ע֨וֹד אֱלֹהִ֜ים אֶל־משֶׁ֗ה כֹּ֣ה תֹאמַר֘ אֶל־בְּנֵ֣י יִשְׂרָאֵל֒ יְהֹוָ֞ה אֱלֹהֵ֣י אֲבֹֽתֵיכֶ֗ם אֱלֹהֵ֨י אַבְרָהָ֜ם אֱלֹהֵ֥י יִצְחָ֛ק וֵֽאלֹהֵ֥י יַֽעֲקֹ֖ב שְׁלָחַ֣נִי אֲלֵיכֶ֑ם זֶה־שְּׁמִ֣י לְעֹלָ֔ם וְזֶ֥ה זִכְרִ֖י לְדֹ֥ר דֹּֽר:

Please note that the meaning of God’s name (יְהֹוָ֞ה) is given as “I Will Be What I Will Be”...not “I Am who I Am”. Even though God’s name is not rendered in the English translation, it is clearly there in the Hebrew text.

To whom was Moses speaking? He was speaking to God to ask how he should come to them in the name of their God......the Hebrews lived as separate from the Egyptians both by nationality and religion. These Hebrew slaves already knew who the God of their forefather Jacob was.....so telling them that he existed was pointless, they already knew he existed, so what was the point of explaining the meaning of יְהֹוָ֞ה.....Yahweh’s name?

Telling them that he would “BE” whatever he needed to be in order to liberate them from their cruel slavery, was saying that even though they knew about the God of Jacob, he would now “BE” to them what they had never seen or heard of before.....the God that Jacob knew....the God who sent Joseph ahead of them to Egypt in order to preserve Israel through a severe famine. They had yet to become God’s nation through whom he would produce their Messiah.

Exodus 3:15 has no connection whatsoever to John 8:58 because “I Am” never was the meaning of God’s name to the Jews.

Did you know that Jesus said “I am” many, many times without it ever being suggested that he was claiming to be his own God?

A little research into that word in Greek means, is very revealing....but only to those who bother to check the Scriptures for themselves. A good Concordance will reveal some interesting facts about this word in Greek (eimi) because Strongs gives the definition as.....

“the first person singular present indicative; a prolonged form of a primary and defective verb; I exist (used only when emphatic):—am, have been, × it is I, was”.

So not just one meaning and context reveals how it should be translated...present tense or past tense.

In John 8, when the Jews were questioning and accusing Jesus, he roundly condemned them...they raised the issue of Abraham and asked him who he claimed to be....

“You are not greater than our father Abraham, who died, are you? The prophets also died. Who do you claim to be?” 54  Jesus answered: “If I glorify myself, my glory is nothing. It is my Father who glorifies me, the one who you say is your God. 55  Yet you have not known him, but I know him. And if I said I do not know him, I would be like you, a liar. But I do know him and am observing his word. 56  Abraham your father rejoiced greatly at the prospect of seeing my day, and he saw it and rejoiced.” 57  Then the Jews said to him: “You are not yet 50 years old, and still you have seen Abraham?”

How did Jesus answer their question? It was a past tense question and rightly needed a past tense answer in keeping with what the Greek “eimi” means in that context. (defined above)

Jesus answered....“Most truly I say to you, before Abraham came into existence, I have been.” Or “I was” or “I existed”...Not “I Am”.
Giving a present tense answer to a past tense question makes no sense, and it is obvious to all Bible readers that Jesus existed before anything or anyone else in creation. (Col 1:15-17) The Jews were asking a question about his age. He answered accordingly.

It is translated as ”I Am” for one reason only...to suggest something that the Bible does not teach...to support a doctrine that is based purely on suggestion, not Scriptural fact.

 

[David in NJ]

Have you ever read that verse in Exodus from the Jewish Tanakh? It doesn’t say what you think it does...and certainly not how Christendom’s Bible translators have rendered it.

This is what Exodus 3:13-15 says from the Complete Jewish Bible.....Exodus3:13-15...

13 And Moses said to God, "Behold I come to the children of Israel, and I say to them, 'The God of your fathers has sent me to you,' and they say to me, 'What is His name?' what shall I say to them?"		יגוַיֹּ֨אמֶר משֶׁ֜ה אֶל־הָֽאֱלֹהִ֗ים הִנֵּ֨ה אָֽנֹכִ֣י בָא֘ אֶל־בְּנֵ֣י יִשְׂרָאֵל֒ וְאָֽמַרְתִּ֣י לָהֶ֔ם אֱלֹהֵ֥י אֲבֽוֹתֵיכֶ֖ם שְׁלָחַ֣נִי אֲלֵיכֶ֑ם וְאָֽמְרוּ־לִ֣י מַה־שְּׁמ֔וֹ מָ֥ה אֹמַ֖ר אֲלֵהֶֽם:
14 God said to Moses, "Ehyeh asher ehyeh (I will be what I will be)," and He said, "So shall you say to the children of Israel, 'Ehyeh (I will be) has sent me to you.'"		ידוַיֹּ֤אמֶר אֱלֹהִים֙ אֶל־משֶׁ֔ה אֶֽהְיֶ֖ה אֲשֶׁ֣ר אֶֽהְיֶ֑ה וַיֹּ֗אמֶר כֹּ֤ה תֹאמַר֙ לִבְנֵ֣י יִשְׂרָאֵ֔ל אֶֽהְיֶ֖ה שְׁלָחַ֥נִי אֲלֵיכֶֽם:
15 And God said further to Moses, "So shall you say to the children of Israel, 'The Lord God of your forefathers, the God of Abraham, the God of Isaac, and the God of Jacob, has sent me to you.' This is My name forever, and this is how I should be mentioned in every generation.		טווַיֹּ֩אמֶר֩ ע֨וֹד אֱלֹהִ֜ים אֶל־משֶׁ֗ה כֹּ֣ה תֹאמַר֘ אֶל־בְּנֵ֣י יִשְׂרָאֵל֒ יְהֹוָ֞ה אֱלֹהֵ֣י אֲבֹֽתֵיכֶ֗ם אֱלֹהֵ֨י אַבְרָהָ֜ם אֱלֹהֵ֥י יִצְחָ֛ק וֵֽאלֹהֵ֥י יַֽעֲקֹ֖ב שְׁלָחַ֣נִי אֲלֵיכֶ֑ם זֶה־שְּׁמִ֣י לְעֹלָ֔ם וְזֶ֥ה זִכְרִ֖י לְדֹ֥ר דֹּֽר:

Please note that the meaning of God’s name (יְהֹוָ֞ה) is given as “I Will Be What I Will Be”...not “I Am who I Am”. Even though God’s name is not rendered in the English translation, it is clearly there in the Hebrew text.

To whom was Moses speaking? He was speaking to God to ask how he should come to them in the name of their God......the Hebrews lived as separate from the Egyptians both by nationality and religion. These Hebrew slaves already knew who the God of their forefather Jacob was.....so telling them that he existed was pointless, they already knew he existed, so what was the point of explaining the meaning of יְהֹוָ֞ה.....Yahweh’s name?

Telling them that he would “BE” whatever he needed to be in order to liberate them from their cruel slavery, was saying that even though they knew about the God of Jacob, he would now “BE” to them what they had never seen or heard of before.....the God that Jacob knew....the God who sent Joseph ahead of them to Egypt in order to preserve Israel through a severe famine. They had yet to become God’s nation through whom he would produce their Messiah.

Exodus 3:15 has no connection whatsoever to John 8:58 because “I Am” never was the meaning of God’s name to the Jews.

Did you know that Jesus said “I am” many, many times without it ever being suggested that he was claiming to be his own God?

A little research into that word in Greek means, is very revealing....but only to those who bother to check the Scriptures for themselves. A good Concordance will reveal some interesting facts about this word in Greek (eimi) because Strongs gives the definition as.....

“the first person singular present indicative; a prolonged form of a primary and defective verb; I exist (used only when emphatic):—am, have been, × it is I, was”.

So not just one meaning and context reveals how it should be translated...present tense or past tense.

In John 8, when the Jews were questioning and accusing Jesus, he roundly condemned them...they raised the issue of Abraham and asked him who he claimed to be....

“You are not greater than our father Abraham, who died, are you? The prophets also died. Who do you claim to be?” 54  Jesus answered: “If I glorify myself, my glory is nothing. It is my Father who glorifies me, the one who you say is your God. 55  Yet you have not known him, but I know him. And if I said I do not know him, I would be like you, a liar. But I do know him and am observing his word. 56  Abraham your father rejoiced greatly at the prospect of seeing my day, and he saw it and rejoiced.” 57  Then the Jews said to him: “You are not yet 50 years old, and still you have seen Abraham?”

How did Jesus answer their question? It was a past tense question and rightly needed a past tense answer in keeping with what the Greek “eimi” means in that context. (defined above)

Jesus answered....“Most truly I say to you, before Abraham came into existence, I have been.” Or “I was” or “I existed”...Not “I Am”.
Giving a present tense answer to a past tense question makes no sense, and it is obvious to all Bible readers that Jesus existed before anything or anyone else in creation. (Col 1:15-17) The Jews were asking a question about his age. He answered accordingly.

It is translated as ”I Am” for one reason only...to suggest something that the Bible does not teach...to support a doctrine that is based purely on suggestion, not Scriptural fact.

Dear Dear Aunty!!!

 

[Davy]

Not a Jewish myth at all, but a Scriptural fact. There was no belief in an immortal soul contained in Jewish Scripture.
Belief in an immortal soul was an adoption from the pagan Greeks that the apostate Jews took on in later centuries. The dead are all in Sheol….sleeping. (Eccl 9:5, 6, 10)

I can see you've been mistaught about that 'immortal' idea also along with man's false Soul Sleep doctrines. Our soul is 'mortal' until it puts on "immortality" through Faith on Jesus Christ. That specifically is what Jesus' idea of being "born again" of The Spirit per John 3 is about.

The old Jewish myth is that our 'soul' part is part of our flesh material body. There is NO Bible Scripture to support that old pagan idea, yet the primitive Jews chose to believe that based on Genesis 2:7. Jesus taught that man can kill the flesh, but not the 'soul' (Matthew 10:28). That automatically means the 'soul' is NOT part of our flesh material body, but instead is of the heavenly dimension along with our spirit.

 

[Aunty Jane]

Dear Dear Aunty!!!

Well, that was deep and meaningful....

No comment on the scriptures?
Do you have a more convincing argument?
Anything but whatever that means....?

 

[Davy]

Have you ever read that verse in Exodus from the Jewish Tanakh? It doesn’t say what you think it does...and certainly not how Christendom’s Bible translators have rendered it.

This is what Exodus 3:13-15 says from the Complete Jewish Bible.....Exodus3:13-15...

13 And Moses said to God, "Behold I come to the children of Israel, and I say to them, 'The God of your fathers has sent me to you,' and they say to me, 'What is His name?' what shall I say to them?"		יגוַיֹּ֨אמֶר משֶׁ֜ה אֶל־הָֽאֱלֹהִ֗ים הִנֵּ֨ה אָֽנֹכִ֣י בָא֘ אֶל־בְּנֵ֣י יִשְׂרָאֵל֒ וְאָֽמַרְתִּ֣י לָהֶ֔ם אֱלֹהֵ֥י אֲבֽוֹתֵיכֶ֖ם שְׁלָחַ֣נִי אֲלֵיכֶ֑ם וְאָֽמְרוּ־לִ֣י מַה־שְּׁמ֔וֹ מָ֥ה אֹמַ֖ר אֲלֵהֶֽם:
14 God said to Moses, "Ehyeh asher ehyeh (I will be what I will be)," and He said, "So shall you say to the children of Israel, 'Ehyeh (I will be) has sent me to you.'"		ידוַיֹּ֤אמֶר אֱלֹהִים֙ אֶל־משֶׁ֔ה אֶֽהְיֶ֖ה אֲשֶׁ֣ר אֶֽהְיֶ֑ה וַיֹּ֗אמֶר כֹּ֤ה תֹאמַר֙ לִבְנֵ֣י יִשְׂרָאֵ֔ל אֶֽהְיֶ֖ה שְׁלָחַ֥נִי אֲלֵיכֶֽם:
15 And God said further to Moses, "So shall you say to the children of Israel, 'The Lord God of your forefathers, the God of Abraham, the God of Isaac, and the God of Jacob, has sent me to you.' This is My name forever, and this is how I should be mentioned in every generation.		טווַיֹּ֩אמֶר֩ ע֨וֹד אֱלֹהִ֜ים אֶל־משֶׁ֗ה כֹּ֣ה תֹאמַר֘ אֶל־בְּנֵ֣י יִשְׂרָאֵל֒ יְהֹוָ֞ה אֱלֹהֵ֣י אֲבֹֽתֵיכֶ֗ם אֱלֹהֵ֨י אַבְרָהָ֜ם אֱלֹהֵ֥י יִצְחָ֛ק וֵֽאלֹהֵ֥י יַֽעֲקֹ֖ב שְׁלָחַ֣נִי אֲלֵיכֶ֑ם זֶה־שְּׁמִ֣י לְעֹלָ֔ם וְזֶ֥ה זִכְרִ֖י לְדֹ֥ר דֹּֽר:

Please note that the meaning of God’s name (יְהֹוָ֞ה) is given as “I Will Be What I Will Be”...not “I Am who I Am”. Even though God’s name is not rendered in the English translation, it is clearly there in the Hebrew text.

To whom was Moses speaking? He was speaking to God to ask how he should come to them in the name of their God......the Hebrews lived as separate from the Egyptians both by nationality and religion. These Hebrew slaves already knew who the God of their forefather Jacob was.....so telling them that he existed was pointless, they already knew he existed, so what was the point of explaining the meaning of יְהֹוָ֞ה.....Yahweh’s name?

Telling them that he would “BE” whatever he needed to be in order to liberate them from their cruel slavery, was saying that even though they knew about the God of Jacob, he would now “BE” to them what they had never seen or heard of before.....the God that Jacob knew....the God who sent Joseph ahead of them to Egypt in order to preserve Israel through a severe famine. They had yet to become God’s nation through whom he would produce their Messiah.

Exodus 3:15 has no connection whatsoever to John 8:58 because “I Am” never was the meaning of God’s name to the Jews.

Did you know that Jesus said “I am” many, many times without it ever being suggested that he was claiming to be his own God?

A little research into that word in Greek means, is very revealing....but only to those who bother to check the Scriptures for themselves. A good Concordance will reveal some interesting facts about this word in Greek (eimi) because Strongs gives the definition as.....

“the first person singular present indicative; a prolonged form of a primary and defective verb; I exist (used only when emphatic):—am, have been, × it is I, was”.

So not just one meaning and context reveals how it should be translated...present tense or past tense.

In John 8, when the Jews were questioning and accusing Jesus, he roundly condemned them...they raised the issue of Abraham and asked him who he claimed to be....

“You are not greater than our father Abraham, who died, are you? The prophets also died. Who do you claim to be?” 54  Jesus answered: “If I glorify myself, my glory is nothing. It is my Father who glorifies me, the one who you say is your God. 55  Yet you have not known him, but I know him. And if I said I do not know him, I would be like you, a liar. But I do know him and am observing his word. 56  Abraham your father rejoiced greatly at the prospect of seeing my day, and he saw it and rejoiced.” 57  Then the Jews said to him: “You are not yet 50 years old, and still you have seen Abraham?”

How did Jesus answer their question? It was a past tense question and rightly needed a past tense answer in keeping with what the Greek “eimi” means in that context. (defined above)

Jesus answered....“Most truly I say to you, before Abraham came into existence, I have been.” Or “I was” or “I existed”...Not “I Am”.
Giving a present tense answer to a past tense question makes no sense, and it is obvious to all Bible readers that Jesus existed before anything or anyone else in creation. (Col 1:15-17) The Jews were asking a question about his age. He answered accordingly.

It is translated as ”I Am” for one reason only...to suggest something that the Bible does not teach...to support a doctrine that is based purely on suggestion, not Scriptural fact.

Now that above certainly is a VAIN ATTEMPT to turn the Old Testament Scripture UPSIDE DOWN about The Father and The Son as The I AM.


Ex 3:14
14 And God said unto Moses, I AM THAT I AM: and he said, Thus shalt thou say unto the children of Israel, I AM hath sent me unto you.
KJV

I AM THAT I AM = Hebrew "ehyeh asher ehyeh", I will be what I will be.

That 'I AM THAT I AM' is simply how the Hebrew was translated into English.


So when Lord Jesus in John 8:58 said, "Before Abraham was, I AM," Jesus was declaring Himself to be GOD. Jesus was using that Name which GOD gave to Moses.

And that... is why those unbelieving Pharisees picked up stones to try and stone Jesus for saying that.

Thus Aunty Jane's supposition is only a vain attempt to DENY the Divinity of Jesus Christ as GOD The Son. Whether she realizes it or not, that is the false doctrine she has latched onto, a doctrine that obviously originates from Judaism which rejects Jesus of Nazareth as The Christ.

 

[Aunty Jane]

I can see you've been mistaught about that 'immortal' idea also along with man's false Soul Sleep doctrines. Our soul is 'mortal' until it puts on "immortality" through Faith on Jesus Christ. That specifically is what Jesus' idea of being "born again" of The Spirit per John 3 is about.

I don’t think you have any idea about what it means that some “put on immortality”....but not all.
There is a reason why some are chosen for a role in heaven.

I hear Christians claim to be “born again” and that the soul lives on apart from the body at death...and yet not a single scripture says so.

The old Jewish myth is that our 'soul' part is part of our flesh material body. There is NO Bible Scripture to support that old pagan idea, yet the primitive Jews chose to believe that based on Genesis 2:7. Jesus taught that man can kill the flesh, but not the 'soul' (Matthew 10:28).

Do you know what the Hebrew word for “soul” is? Its the traditional rendering of the Hebrew word, “neʹphesh”.....it basically refers to (1) people, (2) animals, or (3) the life that a person or an animal has. (Gen 1:20; 2:7; Num 31:28) It never means a disembodied spirit....

There is no “Jewish myth”...who told you that? In the Bible the dead are actually dead. Death is the end of life, not a continuation of it. Resurrection is how the dead live again.....something Jesus will do when he calls them from their graves.....(John 5:28-29)

That automatically means the 'soul' is NOT part of our flesh material body, but instead is of the heavenly dimension along with our spirit.

According to the Bible, a soul cannot exist without a body. The soul is the entire person...it’s not something that escapes from the body to go somewhere else. Adam was t given a soul when he was created....he “became” on when God started him breathing.

Those who are resurrected to heaven are raised in a spirit body...one that God gives to them, in order to live with Christ in heaven.

Humans are designed to live on earth in bodies of flesh...angels are designed to live in the spirit realm which is why God and his son are spirits.

Why do people assume that all Christians must go to heaven? That wasn’t in the original plan....

 

[Davy]

I don’t think you have any idea about what it means that some “put on immortality”....but not all.
There is a reason why some are chosen for a role in heaven.

I know very well the difference in the fallacies of what you are taught, vs. what God's written Word actually teaches. So your attempt to instill doubt doesn't work on me. Try some other person who is Biblically illiterate for I am not.

I hear Christians claim to be “born again” and that the soul lives on apart from the body at death...and yet not a single scripture says so.

That's definitely a silly statement, there's plenty of Bible Scripture that reveals the continuation of the soul after death of the flesh body. I quoted you one of the main Bible Scriptures of that too, Matthew 10:28 by Lord Jesus Himself. Even in the Old Testament with Elijah praying over the dead child asking God to bring the child's soul back into its flesh body, is such an example (1 Kings 17).

Do you know what the Hebrew word for “soul” is? Its the traditional rendering of the Hebrew word, “neʹphesh”.....it basically refers to (1) people, (2) animals, or (3) the life that a person or an animal has. (Gen 1:20; 2:7; Num 31:28) It never means a disembodied spirit....

Hebrews 14:12 reveals God created man with 3 parts - a spirit, a soul, and flesh.

Jesus showed our soul continues if our flesh body is killed. Eccl.12 reveals at flesh death when the "silver cord" is severed (loosed), our spirit goes back to God Who gave it. Paul in 2 Cor.5 showed that if our earthly house were suddenly dissolved, we still have another house not made with hands, but eternal in the heavens, thus referring to our spirit body.

All that reveals our soul and spirit are connected together, and are of the heavenly dimension, NOT FLESH.

Our 'spirit' part that reveals also, is an IMAGE. What Paul in 1 Cor.15 called the "image of the heavenly" that we shall also manifest with in the heavenly. It is not simply a ghost body. It is the "spiritual body" Paul taught in 1 Cor.15 that is the resurrection body type.

Our 'soul' part is our 'person', our individual. It is what Paul called "this mortal" in 1 Cor.15:54. It specifically... is what is "born again" by The Spirit through Faith on Jesus Christ. EVERYONE will have the spirit body or "spiritual body", including the wicked unsaved. But ONLY those of the 1st resurrection will have put on "immortality" through Faith on Jesus Christ.

Now the old Jewish myth about the 'soul' is their wrong belief that the living soul idea of Gen.2:7 means our soul part is part of our flesh material creation, and thus dies with our flesh body, and is literally 'asleep' with our flesh body in the grave. Their error... is not understanding that our 'soul' part is linked with our 'spirit' part, which both... are of the heavenly dimension, and are not made up of material matter. ONLY our flesh body is made up of material matter.

 

[Aunty Jane]

So when Lord Jesus in John 8:58 said, "Before Abraham was, I AM," Jesus was declaring Himself to be GOD. Jesus was using that Name which GOD gave to Moses.

I have given you the Jewish understanding of God’s name...you can disagree if you wish...
I think they know how to interpret their own language...don’t you?

And that... is why those unbelieving Pharisees picked up stones to try and stone Jesus for saying that.

Actually if you read that passage in Greek, that is not at all what the Jews accused him of claiming to be.
They said he claimed to be divine, (theos) But Jesus never once claimed to be “ho theos”. (The God...Yahweh)

What does “theos” mean? What does “ho theos” mean? That little word is basically ignored by translators.

If you wish to promote one of Christendom’s party lines, that is entirely up to you...we are all free to believe whatever we wish....just remember that just because you believe something is true...doesn’t mean it is.

Step back and look at the divisions in Christendom and the constant bickering between them.....the simple truth is that there can only be one truth.....so who is teaching it? They cant all be right.

As a long time Bible student myself, it is apparent to me that you may have studied church theology, but I don’t believe you have actually studied the whole Bible.

I was raised in Christendom....so I know what you believe because I used to believe a lot of that too...but studying the Bible as a whole, getting the big picture, revealed so much that is not taught in the churches....the shackles fell off and I have no desire to be tied up that way again.

You are welcome to your truth...but it’s not my truth. We can allow Jesus to be the one who tells what is truth...he knows better than all of us.

 

[Spiritual Israelite]

OK - We can work together as we submit to what GOD Says is Truth.

Why did God BLESS Adam to live 930 literal years?

I'm not going to answer a bunch of questions like this. I don't like wasting time. Just tell me where you see a connection in scripture between Adam's age and the time period of the thousand years of Revelation 20. If you're not interested in clarifying how you come to your conclusions, then we're done.

 

[David in NJ]

I'm not going to answer a bunch of questions like this. I don't like wasting time. Just tell me where you see a connection in scripture between Adam's age and the time period of the thousand years of Revelation 20. If you're not interested in clarifying how you come to your conclusions, then we're done.

I'm not going to answer a bunch of questions like this.

One question was presented to you in that post.

I don't like wasting time.

WOW - not very Christ-like as JESUS delighted in asking questions to His disciples and answering their questions

SEE = "JESUS asked His disciples: "Who do men say I am?"

Just tell me where you see a connection in scripture between Adam's age and the time period of the thousand years of Revelation 20.

CLEAR as DAY in Genesis chapter 5 and Revelation ch20

FYI = God only needs to Declare Truth just one time - but for our sake HE has repeated His Truth for us

If you're not interested in clarifying how you come to your conclusions, then we're done.

The TRUTH has been clarified for us by God thru the Scriptures but you need to trust the Holy Spirit of Truth

If you are not interested in the LORD's Confirmation of "IT IS WRITTEN" then you can place me on ignore!!!

 

[Marty fox]

One question was presented to you in that post.


WOW - not very Christ-like as JESUS delighted in asking questions to His disciples and answering their questions

SEE = "JESUS asked His disciples: "Who do men say I am?"


CLEAR as DAY in Genesis chapter 5 and Revelation ch20

FYI = God only needs to Declare Truth just one time - but for our sake HE has repeated His Truth for us


The TRUTH has been clarified for us by God thru the Scriptures but you need to trust the Holy Spirit of Truth

If you are not interested in the LORD's Confirmation of "IT IS WRITTEN" then you can place me on ignore!!!

Sorry Dave but I have no idea what your says about Adam and the thousand years either, what is your connection?

 

[David in NJ]

Sorry Dave but I have no idea what your says about Adam and the thousand years either, what is your connection?

Matthew 18:1-5 = If we apply to our hearts this which JESUS commanded us, our vision becomes clearer each day
Please notice i said "we"

Adam lived 930 years = just 70 years short of 1,000 literal years

Why prevented Adam from living 1,000 literal years???

SHALOM

 

[Marty fox]

Matthew 18:1-5 = If we apply to our hearts this which JESUS commanded us, our vision becomes clearer each day
Please notice i said "we"

Adam lived 930 years = just 70 years short of 1,000 literal years

Why prevented Adam from living 1,000 literal years???

SHALOM

Your making no sense can you please just say what you mean?

How does that have anything to do with a literal thousand year reign?

 

[Spiritual Israelite]

One question was presented to you in that post.

The first of who knows how many. Why can't you just explain how you come to your conclusions without having to ask me any questions?

WOW - not very Christ-like as JESUS delighted in asking questions to His disciples and answering their questions

He delighted in telling them the truth. If you can't just tell me how you come to your conclusions then I'm not interested. There's no need for you to ask me questions in order to do that.

CLEAR as DAY in Genesis chapter 5 and Revelation ch20

No, it is not. There is absolutely NOTHING written in Genesis 5 that says anything about Christ's reign and absolutely nothing in Revelation 20 that makes any reference to Adam.

FYI = God only needs to Declare Truth just one time - but for our sake HE has repeated His Truth for us


The TRUTH has been clarified for us by God thru the Scriptures but you need to trust the Holy Spirit of Truth

If you are not interested in the LORD's Confirmation of "IT IS WRITTEN" then you can place me on ignore!!!

I'm not interested in your nonsense. If you knew the truth about this then you would be able to clearly explain it, but you obviously can't.

 

[Spiritual Israelite]

Your making no sense can you please just say what you mean?

How does that have anything to do with a literal thousand year reign?

He obviously does not have the gift of teaching. He has no interest in helping anyone understand how he comes to his conclusions. He apparently doesn't think it's worth his time to help clarify exactly how he is concluding that Adam's age has anything to do with Revelation 20.

 

[complete]

@Marty fox said:-
John 6:54
54 Whoever eats my flesh and drinks my blood has eternal life, and I will raise them up at the last day.

Jesus said it all here, He will raise them on the last day, not raise them a thousand years before the last day.

'No man can come to Me,
except the Father which hath sent Me draw him:
and I will raise Him up at the last day.'
(Joh 6:44)

Hello @Marty fox,

It will be the end (last day) of the age of grace though won't it? For judgement then begins. That is how I see it.

In Christ Jesus
Chris

 

[Davy]

I have given you the Jewish understanding of God’s name...you can disagree if you wish...
I think they know how to interpret their own language...don’t you?

FUNNY!!! So Christians should put their TRUST in JEWS just because they are JEWISH?? That's real funny!

The English Bible translations are CLEAR ENOUGH ON THIS MATTER.

We don't need no SUPPOSED JEWISH authority to attempt to push 'their' false traditions that are AGAINST JESUS CHRIST in vain twisting of the actual written Bible Scriptures. And THE NEW TESTAMENT BOOKS ARE... ALSO EQUAL TO THE OLD TESTAMENT BOOKS. Both... go together as ONE BOOK OF GOD'S WORD.

Thus when Lord Jesus Christ pointed to Himself as The I AM of The Old Testament, HE WAS DECLARING HIMSELF AS GOD THE SON. You cannot change that, nor can your unbelieving JEWISH friends. And I can't understand why someone like you, pushing Judaism here against Jesus Christ, would be allowed on a Christian forum.

 

[Aunty Jane]

FUNNY!!! So Christians should put their TRUST in JEWS just because they are JEWISH?? That's real funny!

I only appealed to the Jewish understanding of what the name of God means in Hebrew which is their language.....what a biased and short sighted view you have taken. Jesus was JEWISH!
He used the Hebrew Scriptures alone in his teachings. He knew what God’s name meant even though the Jews had long since refused to utter it in their speech because of some misguided notion that it was too sacred to speak it in case they were to “take God’s name in vain”. Though missing from their voices, God’s name remained in their Scripture as I demonstrated.
Your response there was a complete knee jerk.

The English Bible translations are CLEAR ENOUGH ON THIS MATTER.

Reading through a variety of translations without a good Concordance is a foolish undertaking, as it reveals many ways to translate a verse. The original meaning of the Bible languages is often lost in translation, which is the work of men....only the original was inspired. Sticking to one translation alone without a Concordance just exacerbates the problem. We have no excuse for ignorance in this day and age....it is an ignorance of choice, the same as that of the Jews who chose to remain in the teachings of the Pharisees in rejecting Jesus as the Christ.

We don't need no SUPPOSED JEWISH authority to attempt to push 'their' false traditions that are AGAINST JESUS CHRIST in vain twisting of the actual written Bible Scriptures. And THE NEW TESTAMENT BOOKS ARE... ALSO EQUAL TO THE OLD TESTAMENT BOOKS. Both... go together as ONE BOOK OF GOD'S WORD.

Yes indeed...the Bible is one book, with one author, and one truth. All contribute to the big picture by which we can examine the reasons for why we live in a such a sinful world.....how it happened.....and how God purposed in the beginning to undo the damage he knew would result from sin entering the world.

Are the Hebrew Scriptures to be ignored just because they were written by Jews?
Don’t look now but every book of the NT was also written by Jews....so yes, all carry equal weight, but translation is a whole other issue. There are multitudes of scholars and so called experts on the linguistics, but only one truth. The Bible is one cohesive story where there are no contradictions. Scholars contradict one another....so, pick your scholars.

Can you tell me why God dealt with the rebellion the way he did...? He had the power to just swat the rebels like annoying flies....why didn’t he, and save us all this grief?

Thus when Lord Jesus Christ pointed to Himself as The I AM of The Old Testament, HE WAS DECLARING HIMSELF AS GOD THE SON. You cannot change that, nor can your unbelieving JEWISH friends. And I can't understand why someone like you, pushing Judaism here against Jesus Christ, would be allowed on a Christian forum.

That’s the point...he never did point to himself as the “I Am” of the OT, and he only ever called himself “the son of God” (John 10:31-36)....never once was he called “God the Son” in a single verse of Scripture.

As I said, suggestion plays a large role in translation. We have to examine all the evidence, not just cherry picked bits of it that are translated to suit preferred doctrines. I believe Jesus in what he said he was....

Accusations of “pushing Judaism” demonstrate a very worrying bias on your part....I don’t have any “unbelieving Jewish friends”....I do have many Jewish brothers and sisters however....even in Israel.
Not all Israelis are Jews, and not all Jews are Israelis.....not all Messianic Jews will call themselves “Christians”.

To whom did Jesus preach exclusively? He said he was sent only to “the lost sheep of the house of Israel”......and as far as the religious leaders, who were responsible for their poor spiritual condition, he said to obey them when they taught from Scripture, but not to imitate their hypocritical practices....they mixed the truth with the doctrines of men....(Matt 15:7-9)....just like Christendom does.

When God gave the command to “get out of Babylon the great” in Rev 18:4-5, his “people” were to obey that direct command without delay.......So who are God’s “people” in this “time of the end”? What is the “Babylon” connection? How did they get to be in “Babylon the great” in the first place? And how do they make their escape before God brings the curtain down on false worship altogether?

How would you answer?

 

[Aunty Jane]

Your making no sense can you please just say what you mean?

How does that have anything to do with a literal thousand year reign?

It’s all in the definition of the word “day” which in Hebrew means more than one definition....like in English we also use the word “day” to signify not only a 24 hour period, but also an entire era. Things like “in my grandfather’s day” doesn’t just mean a 24 hour day, but can refer to an undetermined period of time.

When we read Peter’s words in 2 Peter 3:8...”However, do not let this escape your notice, beloved ones, that one day is with the Lord as a thousand years and a thousand years as one day.”...we can see that a thousand of our years is like “one day” to the Creator.....so when he told the first humans that they would die in the “day” that they ate the fruit, it explains why no human reached 1000 years of age. Even Methuselah who lived the longest, didn’t make it that far. All died within that “day”.

So if a “day” to God is a thousand of our years, then the last “day” is the thousand year reign of Christ when all things are restored back to what they should have been in the beginning....it’s also the time for the general resurrection of the dead. (John 5:28-29) The one Martha spoke about concerning her brother Lazarus. (John 11:23)
The “first resurrection” will have already taken place because all who are chosen to rule with Christ must be in their positions ready to take over the rulership of redeemed mankind as soon as the final battle of Armageddon is over.

It’s all very logical if you study the Bible and it’s original language words instead of relying on unreliable humans to do your homework for you. Concordances have given me such a new perspective on my Bible study, reinforcing beliefs that I came to discover in its pages, that Christendom often overlooks in its translations, resulting in skewed doctrines that make no sense.

Bible study has to be more that a “face value” reading.....in order to be the word of God, there can be no contradictions, yet Christendom’s divided church system is full of them. There can only be one truth because God’s spirit unites his people....it does not divide them and teach them all different things. (1 Cor 1:10)

 

[Marty fox]

It’s all in the definition of the word “day” which in Hebrew means more than one definition....like in English we also use the word “day” to signify not only a 24 hour period, but also an entire era. Things like “in my grandfather’s day” doesn’t just mean a 24 hour day, but can refer to an undetermined period of time.

When we read Peter’s words in 2 Peter 3:8...”However, do not let this escape your notice, beloved ones, that one day is with the Lord as a thousand years and a thousand years as one day.”...we can see that a thousand of our years is like “one day” to the Creator.....so when he told the first humans that they would die in the “day” that they ate the fruit, it explains why no human reached 1000 years of age. Even Methuselah who lived the longest, didn’t make it that far. All died within that “day”.

So if a “day” to God is a thousand of our years, then the last “day” is the thousand year reign of Christ when all things are restored back to what they should have been in the beginning....it’s also the time for the general resurrection of the dead. (John 5:28-29) The one Martha spoke about concerning her brother Lazarus. (John 11:23)
The “first resurrection” will have already taken place because all who are chosen to rule with Christ must be in their positions ready to take over the rulership of redeemed mankind as soon as the final battle of Armageddon is over.

It’s all very logical if you study the Bible and it’s original language words instead of relying on unreliable humans to do your homework for you. Concordances have given me such a new perspective on my Bible study, reinforcing beliefs that I came to discover in its pages, that Christendom often overlooks in its translations, resulting in skewed doctrines that make no sense.

Bible study has to be more that a “face value” reading.....in order to be the word of God, there can be no contradictions, yet Christendom’s divided church system is full of them. There can only be one truth because God’s spirit unites his people....it does not divide them and teach them all different things. (1 Cor 1:10)

No it’s not saying that the day that they eat the fruit they will die means that they won’t live past a thousand years, it’s saying that the day they eat the fruit is the day they stop being immortal and spiritually die