Davidpt
Well-Known Member
This is a good question and the answer could be that the context is about Jerusalem and Judea, so it was not needed to specify what region is the discourse about.
Yet, the following already proves that 'ge' is not meaning the land of Israel in verse 30.
Matthew 24:35 Heaven and earth(ge) shall pass away, but my words shall not pass away.
And not this instead
Heaven and the land of Israel shall pass away, but my words shall not pass away.
Verse 35 does not say that only the earth shall pass away, it says both heaven and earth shall pass away. IOW, there is no connection with heaven passing away if ge is meaning the land of Israel in verse 35. Which then begs the question, why are Preterists applying verse 35 to 70 AD to begin with, when 70 AD can't even remotely explain this---heaven shall pass away?
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