BreadOfLife
Well-Known Member
- Jan 2, 2017
- 22,505
- 3,785
- 113
- Faith
- Christian
- Country
- United States
- Gender
- Male
Every priest I know too at least 3 years of Greek in the seminary . . .Then it is likely you are not a priest.
Welcome to Christian Forums, a Christian Forum that recognizes that all Christians are a work in progress.
You will need to register to be able to join in fellowship with Christians all over the world.
We hope to see you as a part of our community soon and God Bless!
Every priest I know too at least 3 years of Greek in the seminary . . .Then it is likely you are not a priest.
The Protoevangelium is a historical record – not Scripture. And it was the Catholic Church who made that decision under the inspiration of the Holy Spirit.Noncanonical scriptures don't prove anything, but it tells me where that theology came from. Alwell proves the weakness the source.
Baptism is required, but not for salvation. Peter shows it is not water baptism, but the baptism of the spirit which cleanses the conscience
That’s a childish understanding of John 3:5.Jesus was talking about natural and spiritual birth. He even further explained it in the next verse!
The Bible never makes this claim . . .Paul never said baptism was needed for salvation!
also the baptism a believer must go through is dunking in water.
And He will never leave OR forsake us.Sorry but Jesus said He would NEVER leave us oir forsake us. so if we try to walk away, He walks with us still.
No - what is tragic is your refusal to accept the Word of God.What is tragic is you are so focused on you having to be good to stay saved, you do not realize you are teaching that the blood of Jesus did not pay for all your sins.! According to your false doctrine, There can come a time when you rsalvation is yanked from you, for sinning one time too many. Noe I am 100% in agreement with Paul iin romans 6 so please do not accuse me of saying it is okay to sin.
What is even more tragic is that you , being a very intelligent and devout man, do not even realize what jesus accomplished for you and the massive transformation a person experiences the moment they trust in the deatha nd physical resurrection of Jesus for their full sin debt. that is the real tragedy here.
If Jesus came soon and he did, does that mean he is not with the Roman Catholics?If Jesus is truth itself and the Church is the FULLNESS of Him and the “pillar and foundation of truth” (1 Tim. 3:15) – then YOU are wrong.
You are correct about ONE thing – the Catholic Church is not a denomination . . .
The Protoevangelium of James, also known as the Gospel of James, is a second-century infancy gospel that narrates the miraculous conception of Mary, her upbringing, and her marriage to Joseph. It details the journey to Bethlehem, the birth of Jesus, and events following his birth. This text is significant as it asserts the perpetual virginity of Mary, influencing Christian Mariology despite being classified as apocryphal by the Church. The Protoevangelium serves as a prequel to the birth narratives found in the Gospels of Matthew and Luke, providing additional context to the Nativity story.The Protoevangelium is a historical record – not Scripture
No thank for proving that Jesus redefined for would be children of God.Thank you for PROVING my point that “adelphos” doesn’t always means uterine sibling . . .

Liar. Pastors perhaps, but priests are generally speaking, morons. I think you mean the Greek Orthodox who don't tolerate Rome's heresies. And she isn't tolerated lately.Every priest I know too at least 3 years of Greek in the seminary . . .
Your question doesn’t make any sense as written.If Jesus came soon and he did, does that mean he is not with the Roman Catholics?
No – it simply supports the idea that she remained a virgin her whole life.The Protoevangelium of James, also known as the Gospel of James, is a second-century infancy gospel that narrates the miraculous conception of Mary, her upbringing, and her marriage to Joseph. It details the journey to Bethlehem, the birth of Jesus, and events following his birth. This text is significant as it asserts the perpetual virginity of Mary, influencing Christian Mariology despite being classified as apocryphal by the Church. The Protoevangelium serves as a prequel to the birth narratives found in the Gospels of Matthew and Luke, providing additional context to the Nativity story.
In other words, this gnostic document claims Mary had a regenerating virginity.
MY position all along has been that “adelphos” doesn’t always means uterine sibling . . .No thank for proving that Jesus redefined for would be children of God.
Ahh, yes.Liar.
Once again – NOT the priests I know.Pastors perhaps, but priests are generally speaking, morons. I think you mean the Greek Orthodox who don't tolerate Rome's heresies. And she isn't tolerated lately.
The second coming has already happened 2000 years ago, yet the "original" church does not believe what is in Revelation.Your question doesn’t make any sense as written.
Care to try again?
That's not what that document says. It says a cherry regenerated. Besides even without having sex, a woman will still lose her virginity being full grown. Did you want me to say that?No – it simply supports the idea that she remained a virgin her whole life.
But it most certainly does in most contexts.MY position all along has been that “adelphos” doesn’t always means uterine sibling . . .
Care you show me some actual evidence for this for this outlandish claim?The second coming has already happened 2000 years ago, yet the "original" church does not believe what is in Revelation.
Actually, that’s NOT true.But it most certainly does in most contexts.
I have this document in my possession. NOWHEERE does it contain the text that YOU are claiming.That's not what that document says. It says a cherry regenerated. Besides even without having sex, a woman will still lose her virginity being full grown. Did you want me to say that?
[Rev 3:11 KJV] 11 Behold, I come quickly: hold that fast which thou hast, that no man take thy crown.Care you show me some actual evidence for this for this outlandish claim?
| Inflected: | ἔρχομαι |
| Root: | ἔρχομαι
|
| Strong's: | G2064 |
| English: | come I |
| Code: | V-PNI-1S |
| Long: | Verb - Present Middle or Passive Deponent Indicative - 1st Person Singular |
| Speech: | Verb |
| Tense: | Present |
| Voice: | Middle or Passive Deponent |
| Mood: | Indicative |
| Person: | 1st Person |
| Number: | Singular |
| Speech: | Adverb |
It is used of fathered siblings but not uterine siblings; hence the special NT usage refering to the adoption of progeny by God, a promise of afterlife.Actually, that’s NOT true.
There are 344 instances are instances where the word “Adelphos” and all of its variations are used in the NT.
- 41 times (12%) are cases where "Adelphos" clearly or probably refers to a family sibling.
- 47 instances (14%) are cases where "Adelphos" may or may not refer to a family sibling.
- 256 instances (74%) are cases where "Adelphos" cannot or almost certainly does NOT refer to a family sibling.
Soooo, in the overwhelming majority of instances (74%), it is NOT used to describe uterine siblings . . .
Care to describe what clit means in Latin? It is not the same as in English.I have this document in my possession. NOWHEERE does it contain the text that YOU are claiming.
Care to show me your source - with the excerpt?