Who is "the god of this world"? God or satan?

[ewq1938]

I do not believe the verse is speaking about Satan being the God of this world. Satan is called the Prince of the world (not a God and not a King) but not the God of it. Certainly much of the world worships Satan in one form or another but in order to know whom is being spoken of we simply have to use the context:



2 Corinthians 4:4 In whom the god of this world hath blinded the minds of them which believe not, lest the light of the glorious gospel of Christ, who is the image of God, should shine unto them.

Some will say it's a little "g" on god so that means its not God. Not so. There are no capitals vs. small letters in the manuscripts. The small g is purely the translators opinion.


So who was it that "blinded the minds of them which believe not"?

It was God.

John 12:40 He hath blinded their eyes, and hardened their heart; that they should not see with their eyes, nor understand with their heart, and be converted, and I should heal them.


The HE here is God and this is very similar language. God blinded them so they could not convert and be healed! Isn't that what the other verse is saying?

Romans 11:7 What then? Israel hath not obtained that which he seeketh for; but the election hath obtained it, and the rest were blinded
Romans 11:8 (According as it is written, God hath given them the spirit of slumber, eyes that they should not see, and ears that they should not hear) unto this day.


God does the blinding!

While Satan can be considered a false god of this world, he simply isn't the one being spoken of because it is God which blinds so people cannot convert to Christ and be healed.
There are no capitals in the manuscripts.

Gen_24:3 And I will make thee swear by the LORD, the God of heaven, and the God of the earth, that thou shalt not take a wife unto my son of the daughters of the Canaanites, among whom I dwell:

Isa_54:5 For thy Maker is thine husband; the LORD of hosts is his name; and thy Redeemer the Holy One of Israel; The God of the whole earth shall he be called.

Revelation 11:4 these are the two olive trees, and the two candlesticks standing before the god of the earth.

Is this Satan because it is believed that saying "god of something" rather than just "god" means that it isn't the one true God? If Satan is the supposed "god of this world" then he must also be the "god of the earth" right?

Remember, there are no capitals in the manuscripts. god and God are spelled exactly the same way so we can't go by that. Naturally, context matters. Naturally, using other scriptures to help us understand scriptures matter. Forget tradition, forget what has been assumed for generations and look without assumption at all the evidence and decide who is doing the blinding in the world.

 

[Aunty Jane]

I do not believe the verse is speaking about Satan being the God of this world. Satan is called the Prince of the world (not a God and not a King) but not the God of it. Certainly much of the world worships Satan in one form or another but in order to know whom is being spoken of we simply have to use the context:

I believe that it is talking about satan, rather than God, because, when satan tempted Jesus, he “showed him all the kingdoms of the world” and said he would give them all to Jesus in exchange for one act of worship.

“Then the devil, taking Him up on a high mountain, showed Him all the kingdoms of the world in a moment of time. And the devil said to Him, “All this authority I will give You, and their glory; for this has been delivered to me, and I give it to whomever I wish. Therefore, if You will worship before me, all will be Yours.” (Luke 4:5-7 NKJV)

Jesus did not dispute that these were satan’s to give....and when he said that these kingdoms had been “delivered” to him....who was the only one who could give the devil world rulership, so that he could give to whomever he pleased?

In John 16:8-11....speaking of what the promised Holy Spirit would do, Jesus said....”
“And when He has come, He will convict the world of sin, and of righteousness, and of judgment: of sin, because they do not believe in Me; of righteousness, because I go to My Father and you see Me no more; of judgment, because the ruler of this world is judged.” (NKJV)

Who is “the ruler of this world” who “is judged”? It isn’t Jesus.

The word “god” in that Scripture is “theos”, which is a word with many applications....it refers to Yahweh when prefaced with “ho” (only Yahweh is ever called “ho theos”) Jesus is called “theos”...angels, satan and even human judges....

Strongs tells us that it’s primary definition is....

1. “a god or goddess, a general name of deities or divinities”.

It can also mean....

1. “whatever can in any respect be likened unto God, or resemble him in any way
   1. God's representative or viceregent
      1. of magistrates and judges”

So not a word that applied to God alone, but context determining the translation.

2 Corinthians 4:4 In whom the god of this world hath blinded the minds of them which believe not, lest the light of the glorious gospel of Christ, who is the image of God, should shine unto them.

Another reason why I believe that it is referring to satan is because this “god” has the ability to “blind minds” not just eyes.....if you think about that for a moment, the mind is the center where all the senses are processed.....blinded eyes don’t blot out the other senses.....”unbelievers” are his victims, so thoroughly deceived that they cannot understand anything, no matter what senses are applied.

Some will say it's a little "g" on god so that means its not God. Not so. There are no capitals vs. small letters in the manuscripts. The small g is purely the translators opinion.

I believe that Luke and John quote Jesus who identifies satan as the “god” and “ruler” “of this world”.....(small “g”)

 

[Zao is life]

I do not believe the verse is speaking about Satan being the God of this world. Satan is called the Prince of the world (not a God and not a King) but not the God of it. Certainly much of the world worships Satan in one form or another but in order to know whom is being spoken of we simply have to use the context:



2 Corinthians 4:4 In whom the god of this world hath blinded the minds of them which believe not, lest the light of the glorious gospel of Christ, who is the image of God, should shine unto them.

Some will say it's a little "g" on god so that means its not God. Not so. There are no capitals vs. small letters in the manuscripts. The small g is purely the translators opinion.


So who was it that "blinded the minds of them which believe not"?

It was God.

John 12:40 He hath blinded their eyes, and hardened their heart; that they should not see with their eyes, nor understand with their heart, and be converted, and I should heal them.


The HE here is God and this is very similar language. God blinded them so they could not convert and be healed! Isn't that what the other verse is saying?

Romans 11:7 What then? Israel hath not obtained that which he seeketh for; but the election hath obtained it, and the rest were blinded
Romans 11:8 (According as it is written, God hath given them the spirit of slumber, eyes that they should not see, and ears that they should not hear) unto this day.


God does the blinding!

While Satan can be considered a false god of this world, he simply isn't the one being spoken of because it is God which blinds so people cannot convert to Christ and be healed.
There are no capitals in the manuscripts.

Gen_24:3 And I will make thee swear by the LORD, the God of heaven, and the God of the earth, that thou shalt not take a wife unto my son of the daughters of the Canaanites, among whom I dwell:

Isa_54:5 For thy Maker is thine husband; the LORD of hosts is his name; and thy Redeemer the Holy One of Israel; The God of the whole earth shall he be called.

Revelation 11:4 these are the two olive trees, and the two candlesticks standing before the god of the earth.

Is this Satan because it is believed that saying "god of something" rather than just "god" means that it isn't the one true God? If Satan is the supposed "god of this world" then he must also be the "god of the earth" right?

Remember, there are no capitals in the manuscripts. god and God are spelled exactly the same way so we can't go by that. Naturally, context matters. Naturally, using other scriptures to help us understand scriptures matter. Forget tradition, forget what has been assumed for generations and look without assumption at all the evidence and decide who is doing the blinding in the world.

I believe you could be correct.

Compare John 3:18-19 and 2 Corinthians 4 & 6 together:

He that believes on him is not condemned: but he that believes not is condemned already, because he has not believed in the name of the only begotten Son of God.

And this is the condemnation, that the light is come into the world, and men loved darkness rather than the light, because their deeds were evil. -- John 3:18-19.

4 In whom the God [o' theos] of this the age [o' aion] - not "world" - has blinded the minds of them which believe not, lest the light of the glorious gospel of Christ, who is the image of God, should shine unto them.

6 For the God [o' theos], who commanded the light to shine out of darkness, has shined in our hearts, to give the light of the knowledge of the glory of the God [o' theos] in the face of Jesus Christ. -- 2 Corinthians 4 & 6.

Plus this fact:

Anyone with a text with the Strong's lexicon included could do a check on this:

Every time the word theos (god) is preceded by the definite article - o' theos - The God, it's talking about God the Father.

No other "god".

If 2 Corinthians 4:6 were an exception, it would be the only exception in the entire New Testament. It says "the God - meaning God the Father.

- and we know why He has blinded the minds of them that believe not, because Jesus told us why.

And with the fact that Satan is called "the prince of this the world [ho kosmos] three times:

John 12
31 Now is the judgment of this the world [ho kosmos]: now shall the prince of this the world [ho kosmos] be cast out.

John 14
30 Hereafter I will not talk much with you: for the prince of this the world [ho kosmos] cometh, and hath nothing in me.

John 16
11 The prince of this the world [ho kosmos] is judged.

4 In whom the God [o' theos] of this the age [o' aion] - not "world" - has blinded the minds of them which believe not, lest the light of the glorious gospel of Christ, who is the image of God, should shine unto them.

 

[Zao is life]

The word “god” in that Scripture is “theos”, which is a word with many applications....it refers to Yahweh when prefaced with “ho” (only Yahweh is ever called “ho theos”)

"In whom ho theos [the God - YHVH] of this the age [ho aion] has blinded the minds of them which believe not, lest the light of the glorious gospel of Christ, who is the image of God, should shine unto them.

He that believes on him is not condemned: but he that believes not is condemned already, because he has not believed in the name of the only begotten Son of God.

And this is the condemnation, that the light is come into the world, and men loved darkness rather than the light, because their deeds were evil. -- John 3:18-19.

4 In whom the God [ho theos] of this the age [ho aion] - not "world" - has blinded the minds of them which believe not, lest the light of the glorious gospel of Christ, who is the image of God, should shine unto them.

6 For the God [ho theos], who commanded the light to shine out of darkness, has shined in our hearts, to give the light of the knowledge of the glory of the God [ho theos] in the face of Jesus Christ. -- 2 Corinthians 4 & 6.

 

[Aunty Jane]

Anyone with a text with the Strong's lexicon included could do a check on this:

Every time the word theos (god) is preceded by the definite article - o' theos - The God, it's talking about God the Father.

No other "god".

If 2 Corinthians 4:6 were an exception, it would be the only exception in the entire New Testament. It says "the God - meaning God the Father.

They should also check how many times the indefinite article (“a” or “an”) is used....because in Greek there is no indefinite article, nor is there punctuation, so it must be inserted to make English more understandable.
In keeping with the correct definition, (stated below) “theos” can mean “a god or goddess”.....because Yahweh/Jehovah is the only one ever addressed with “ho theos” as a title, substituted for his name.

"In whom ho theos [the God - YHVH] of this the age [ho aion] has blinded the minds of them which believe not, lest the light of the glorious gospel of Christ, who is the image of God, should shine unto them.

He that believes on him is not condemned: but he that believes not is condemned already, because he has not believed in the name of the only begotten Son of God.

And this is the condemnation, that the light is come into the world, and men loved darkness rather than the light, because their deeds were evil. -- John 3:18-19.

4 In whom the God [ho theos] of this the age [ho aion] - not "world" - has blinded the minds of them which believe not, lest the light of the glorious gospel of Christ, who is the image of God, should shine unto them.

6 For the God [ho theos], who commanded the light to shine out of darkness, has shined in our hearts, to give the light of the knowledge of the glory of the God [ho theos] in the face of Jesus Christ. -- 2 Corinthians 4 & 6.

In understanding the grammar of any statement, context is key.....

When used as a title “ho theos” is identifying Yahweh/Jehovah, the Father....just as “ho logos” identifies the Son by his title. The son is never identified as “ho theos”...but only as “theos”.

Strongs tells us that the primary definition of “theos” is....

1. “a god or goddess, a general name of deities or divinities”.

John 1:1 is an example....in Greek it literally says....”In the beginning was the Word (ho logos) and the Word was with God (ho theos) and the Word was divine. (theos)” indicating that Jesus was God-like, of divine origin, but not “ho theos”.
It was “ho logos” who “became flesh”....not “ho theos”. (V 14)

Another good example is John 10:31-36, where Jesus plainly stated that he was the Son of “ho theos”. But he also identified the human judges in Israel as “gods” (theos) because of their position in acting on God’s behalf to his people. Angels too are called “theos”.

So calling anyone other than Jehovah, “theos” is not calling them “God” with a capital “G”.

Using “ho theos” in 2 Cor 4:4 is simply grammar, not identification of Jehovah.

Why was the true God identified by a title (ho theos) instead of his name (Yahweh) in first century Judaism?

Do you know why they ceased using God’s name when they were instructed by God through Moses to retain his name in all their generations...

“And God said moreover to Moses, Thus shalt thou say unto the children of Israel: Jehovah, the God of your fathers, the God of Abraham, the God of Isaac, and the God of Jacob, hath sent me unto you. This is my name for ever, and this is my memorial unto all generations.” (Exodus 3:15 DARBY)

Do you know why the Jewish Bible writers used God’s name freely and reverently throughout the OT?....and why most modern English translations omit it?

If the divine name had still been in use, the trinity could never have even been suggested.

Understanding how the word “God” is used in the whole Bible determines how this word should be translated....but isn’t. There is a doctrine to support and mistranslation is the prime way in which false doctrines are promoted to suggest what the Scriptures never said....the Bible writers did not subscribe to the idea that Jesus was anything other than God’s Son, because that notion was introduced long after Jesus’ death by an apostate church, which grew like “weeds” in the world, almost choking out the “wheat” altogether.

Jesus foretold that this would happen....what masquerades as “Christianity” today, pretends that it never did. The result is Christendom...a muddled mess.....a sad counterfeit of the original, devoid of truth or understanding of what Scripture actually teaches because church “theology” replaced individual Bible study. In that way the members were fed doctrines of men...something Jesus castigated the Pharisees for.....

“You hypocrites! Well did Isaiah prophesy of you, when he said: he need not honor his father.’ So for the sake of your tradition you have made void the word of God. “‘This people honors me with their lips, but their heart is far from me; in vain do they worship me, teaching as doctrines the commandments of men.’” Matt 15: 7-9 ESV)

There is no agreement or unity, which was to identify the real Christian Faith. (1 Cor 1:10) History is repeating, and “the god of this” world continues to be worshipped, whilst the true God is lost in the maze that the devil created.

 

[Button]

"In whom ho theos [the God - YHVH] of this the age [ho aion] has blinded the minds of them which believe not, lest the light of the glorious gospel of Christ, who is the image of God, should shine unto them.

He that believes on him is not condemned: but he that believes not is condemned already, because he has not believed in the name of the only begotten Son of God.

And this is the condemnation, that the light is come into the world, and men loved darkness rather than the light, because their deeds were evil. -- John 3:18-19.

4 In whom the God [ho theos] of this the age [ho aion] - not "world" - has blinded the minds of them which believe not, lest the light of the glorious gospel of Christ, who is the image of God, should shine unto them.

6 For the God [ho theos], who commanded the light to shine out of darkness, has shined in our hearts, to give the light of the knowledge of the glory of the God [ho theos] in the face of Jesus Christ. -- 2 Corinthians 4 & 6.

How do we reconcile this passage,

"In whom ho theos [the God - YHVH] of this the age [ho aion] has blinded the minds of them which believe not, lest the light of the glorious gospel of Christ, who is the image of God, should shine unto them. ,

With, 2nd Peter 3::9 The Lord is not slack concerning his promise, as some men count slackness; but is longsuffering to us-ward, not willing that any should perish, but that all should come to repentance. ?

 

[ewq1938]

Luk 8:11 Now the parable is this: The seed is the word of God.
Luk 8:12 Those by the way side are they that hear; then cometh the devil, and taketh away the word out of their hearts, lest they should believe and be saved.
Luk 8:13 They on the rock are they, which, when they hear, receive the word with joy; and these have no root, which for a while believe, and in time of temptation fall away.

Luke didn't use the term blinding because it's not about blinding but THEFT. The parable is concerning the word of God being stolen from people. But scripture speaks of God blinding:

John 12:40 He hath blinded their eyes, and hardened their heart; that they should not see with their eyes, nor understand with their heart, and be converted, and I should heal them.

God did this, not satan. Once blinded, satan can take "the word out of their hearts" but they were blinded by God.

Romans 11:7 What then? Israel hath not obtained that which he seeketh for; but the election hath obtained it, and the rest were blinded
Romans 11:8 (According as it is written, God hath given them the spirit of slumber, eyes that they should not see, and ears that they should not hear) unto this day.

Who made it so they could not see? Who blinded them? God.

Isaiah 6:9 And he said, Go, and tell this people, Hear ye indeed, but understand not; and see ye indeed, but perceive not.
Isaiah 6:10 Make the heart of this people fat, and make their ears heavy, and shut their eyes; lest they see with their eyes, and hear with their ears, and understand with their heart, and convert, and be healed.
Isaiah 6:11 Then said I, Lord, how long? And he answered, Until the cities be wasted without inhabitant, and the houses without man, and the land be utterly desolate,
Isaiah 6:12 And the LORD have removed men far away, and there be a great forsaking in the midst of the land.

And the OT original. God does the blinding.

Rom 11:25 For I would not, brethren, that ye should be ignorant of this mystery, lest ye should be wise in your own conceits; that blindness in part is happened to Israel, until the fulness of the Gentiles be come in.

God blinded them, not satan.

2Co 3:13 And not as Moses, which put a vail over his face, that the children of Israel could not stedfastly look to the end of that which is abolished:
2Co 3:14 But their minds were blinded: for until this day remaineth the same vail untaken away in the reading of the old testament; which vail is done away in Christ.
2Co 3:15 But even unto this day, when Moses is read, the vail is upon their heart.

We have numerous passages that everyone agrees is God blinding people from accepting the truth of Christ. Then we have one single verse where a translator decided to use a lower case g on "god" and the verse is still about someone who is a "god" blinding people from accepting Christ.

There is no reason why both God and Satan would be doing the same blinding to the same people for the same reason. They aren't a team and they don't do the same work for the same goals.

It's either God doing it and not satan, or satan doing it and not God.

 

[ewq1938]

2Co 3:13 And not as Moses, which put a vail over his face, that the children of Israel could not stedfastly look to the end of that which is abolished:
2Co 3:14 But their minds were blinded: for until this day remaineth the same vail untaken away in the reading of the old testament; which vail is done away in Christ.
2Co 3:15 But even unto this day, when Moses is read, the vail is upon their heart.
2Co 3:16 Nevertheless when it shall turn to the Lord, the vail shall be taken away.
2Co 3:17 Now the Lord is that Spirit: and where the Spirit of the Lord is, there is liberty.
2Co 3:18 But we all, with open face beholding as in a glass the glory of the Lord, are changed into the same image from glory to glory, even as by the Spirit of the Lord.
2Co 4:1 Therefore seeing we have this ministry, as we have received mercy, we faint not;
2Co 4:2 But have renounced the hidden things of dishonesty, not walking in craftiness, nor handling the word of God deceitfully; but by manifestation of the truth commending ourselves to every man's conscience in the sight of God.
2Co 4:3 But if our gospel be hid, it is hid to them that are lost:
2Co 4:4 In whom the god of this world hath blinded the minds of them which believe not, lest the light of the glorious gospel of Christ, who is the image of God, should shine unto them.


Context never changed. 3:15 is about God doing the blinding and 8 verses later, it is still God doing the blinding.

 

[Traveler]

Come on guys, If Satan did not have authority over this world then Jesus would not have had to redeem it back to God in the first place.

 

[ewq1938]

I believe that it is talking about satan, rather than God, because, when satan tempted Jesus, he “showed him all the kingdoms of the world” and said he would give them all to Jesus in exchange for one act of worship.

Yes satan is the ruler of the world but he is not the God of it. Rge verse in question is speaking of the one and only God, who is the God of the world.

The word “god” in that Scripture is “theos”, which is a word with many applications....it refers to Yahweh when prefaced with “ho” (only Yahweh is ever called “ho theos”) Jesus is called “theos”...angels, satan and even human judges....

Not satan. The context of the passage is never regarding satan but about God blinding people that do not believe.

 

[Zao is life]

They should also check how many times the indefinite article (“a” or “an”) is used....because in Greek there is no indefinite article, nor is there punctuation, so it must be inserted to make English more understandable.
In keeping with the correct definition, (stated below) “theos” can mean “a god or goddess”.....because Yahweh/Jehovah is the only one ever addressed with “ho theos” as a title, substituted for his name.

In understanding the grammar of any statement, context is key.....

When used as a title “ho theos” is identifying Yahweh/Jehovah, the Father....just as “ho logos” identifies the Son by his title. The son is never identified as “ho theos”...but only as “theos”.

Strongs tells us that the primary definition of “theos” is....

1. “a god or goddess, a general name of deities or divinities”.

John 1:1 is an example....in Greek it literally says....”In the beginning was the Word (ho logos) and the Word was with God (ho theos) and the Word was divine. (theos)” indicating that Jesus was God-like, of divine origin, but not “ho theos”.
It was “ho logos” who “became flesh”....not “ho theos”. (V 14)

Another good example is John 10:31-36, where Jesus plainly stated that he was the Son of “ho theos”. But he also identified the human judges in Israel as “gods” (theos) because of their position in acting on God’s behalf to his people. Angels too are called “theos”.

So calling anyone other than Jehovah, “theos” is not calling them “God” with a capital “G”.

Using “ho theos” in 2 Cor 4:4 is simply grammar, not identification of Jehovah.

Why was the true God identified by a title (ho theos) instead of his name (Yahweh) in first century Judaism?

Do you know why they ceased using God’s name when they were instructed by God through Moses to retain his name in all their generations...

“And God said moreover to Moses, Thus shalt thou say unto the children of Israel: Jehovah, the God of your fathers, the God of Abraham, the God of Isaac, and the God of Jacob, hath sent me unto you. This is my name for ever, and this is my memorial unto all generations.” (Exodus 3:15 DARBY)

Do you know why the Jewish Bible writers used God’s name freely and reverently throughout the OT?....and why most modern English translations omit it?

If the divine name had still been in use, the trinity could never have even been suggested.

Understanding how the word “God” is used in the whole Bible determines how this word should be translated....but isn’t. There is a doctrine to support and mistranslation is the prime way in which false doctrines are promoted to suggest what the Scriptures never said....the Bible writers did not subscribe to the idea that Jesus was anything other than God’s Son, because that notion was introduced long after Jesus’ death by an apostate church, which grew like “weeds” in the world, almost choking out the “wheat” altogether.

Jesus foretold that this would happen....what masquerades as “Christianity” today, pretends that it never did. The result is Christendom...a muddled mess.....a sad counterfeit of the original, devoid of truth or understanding of what Scripture actually teaches because church “theology” replaced individual Bible study. In that way the members were fed doctrines of men...something Jesus castigated the Pharisees for.....

“You hypocrites! Well did Isaiah prophesy of you, when he said: he need not honor his father.’ So for the sake of your tradition you have made void the word of God. “‘This people honors me with their lips, but their heart is far from me; in vain do they worship me, teaching as doctrines the commandments of men.’” Matt 15: 7-9 ESV)

There is no agreement or unity, which was to identify the real Christian Faith. (1 Cor 1:10) History is repeating, and “the god of this” world continues to be worshipped, whilst the true God is lost in the maze that the devil created.

You and yours are the only ones who change how theos should be translated when the verse is not referring to YHVH (the Father) in John 1:1 - and everywhere else where theos is referring to the Word.

Here's how the sentence order of John 1:1 appears in the Greek:

John 1:1 Interlinear: In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.

In the beginning exists [G1510 en or eimi - meaning "I exist"] the Logos [ho logos] and the Logos exists [G1510] with YHVH [ho theos] and God [theos] exists, the Logos.

In plainer English:

"In the beginning exists the Word, and the Word exists with YHVH, and God exists, the Word.

PROOF OF HIS EXISTENCE IN YHVH BEFORE ANYTHING WAS CREATED:

Life [zoe] only exists in the Father (YHVH). The Son is the Word who became flesh - Jesus the Man:

For as the Father hath life [zoe] in himself; so hath he given to the Son to have life [zoe] in himself. (John 5:26) .

Before the Logos took on human flesh and became a man, the life [zoe] that exists only in YHVH existed in Him - the Logos:

In the same (the Logos) life [zoe] exists and the life [zoe] exists - the light of men. (John 1:4).

In the beginning exists [G1510 "I exist"] the Logos [ho logos] and the Logos exists [G1510] with YHVH [ho theos] and God [theos] exists, the Logos.

And He is before [G4253 pro] all things and ALL [pas] things in Him hold together

- IN Him were created ALL things (Colossians 1:16-17).

It is impossible for life [zoe] to exist only in YHVH, and life [zoe] to exist only in the Word, and the Word to exist only IN YHVH and with YHVH,

- BEFORE ALL THINGS

- if the Word was "created" by YHVH BEFORE all things that were created by the Word.

I'm not debating this with you any further. I don't debate JW's or any of its off-shoots.

 

[Zao is life]

How do we reconcile this passage,

"In whom ho theos [the God - YHVH] of this the age [ho aion] has blinded the minds of them which believe not, lest the light of the glorious gospel of Christ, who is the image of God, should shine unto them. ,

With, 2nd Peter 3::9 The Lord is not slack concerning his promise, as some men count slackness; but is longsuffering to us-ward, not willing that any should perish, but that all should come to repentance. ?

The same way you reconcile the fact that the Lord is not slack concerning his promise, as some men count slackness; but is longsuffering to us-ward, not willing that any should perish, but that all should come to repentance,

with the fact that the one who does not believe in Jesus is condemned already because He has not believed in the name of the only begotten Son of God.

The words "do not believe" appear where it says God has blinded the minds of those who do not believe as well as where it says they are condemned already

- and the light is mentioned in both passages.

The darkness cannot overcome the Light. God COULD override the refusal of unbelievers to believe the light at any time but He has chosen to blind them because they chose darkness rather than the light because their deeds were evil:

For God, who said "Let light shine out of darkness," is the one who shined in our hearts to give us the light of the glorious knowledge of God in the face of Christ
- But even if our gospel is veiled, it is veiled only to those who are perishing, among whom the God of this age has blinded the minds of those who do not believe so they would not see the light of the glorious gospel of Christ, who is the image of God.

This is their condemnation - because they loved the darkness rather than the light, because their deeds were evil (John 3:18-19).

It's not Satan doing it. Satan has NO power over the light. Since the days in the Garden of Eden, his words are only suggestive - they would have no power over mankind if mankind did not choose to reject the Word of God and believe the lies of Satan.

 

[Button]

The same way you reconcile the fact that the Lord is not slack concerning his promise, as some men count slackness; but is longsuffering to us-ward, not willing that any should perish, but that all should come to repentance,

with the fact that the one who does not believe in Jesus is condemned already because He has not believed in the name of the only begotten Son of God.

The words "do not believe" appear where it says God has blinded the minds of those who do not believe as well as where it says they are condemned already

- and the light is mentioned in both passages.

The darkness cannot overcome the Light. God COULD override the refusal of unbelievers to believe the light at any time but He has chosen to blind them because they chose darkness rather than the light because their deeds were evil:

For God, who said "Let light shine out of darkness," is the one who shined in our hearts to give us the light of the glorious knowledge of God in the face of Christ
- But even if our gospel is veiled, it is veiled only to those who are perishing, among whom the God of this age has blinded the minds of those who do not believe so they would not see the light of the glorious gospel of Christ, who is the image of God.

This is their condemnation - because they loved the darkness rather than the light, because their deeds were evil (John 3:18-19).

It's not Satan doing it. Satan has NO power over the light. Since the days in the Garden of Eden, his words are only suggestive - they would have no power over mankind if mankind did not choose to reject the Word of God and believe the lies of Satan.

Thanks for your reply. I don't think that answers the question , though I do appreciate your thoughts.

 

[Aunty Jane]

I'm not debating this with you any further. I don't debate JW's or any of its off-shoots.

You are free to believe as you wish….as we all are…but there is only one truth. And those who argue against it will not ever be able to say to Jesus….”no one told me I was wrong”….

”So many agreed with me” won’t be an excuse because we already know that “few“ are going to be found on the road to life. (Matt 7:13-14)

Christ’s true disciples would be hated and persecuted by the world. (John 15:18-21)

They will be one united global brotherhood, actively engaged in preaching the message of the Kingdom “in all the inhabited earth for a witness to all the nations, and then the end will come“. (Matt 24:14)

This is what Matt 7:21-23 is warning us about. The excuses offered will not be accepted…..
If Jesus “never knew” us because we were worshipping the wrong god…then this breach of the first Commandment is inexcusable.

Jesus is not Yahweh. He was “the firstborn of ALL creation” (Col 1:15) which makes Rev 3:14 true….he is “the beginning of God’s creation”.
The spirit being who was “the logos” became Jesus the man….he existed in heaven “with” his God and Father before anything else. The Father was still his God, upon his return to heaven. (Rev 3:12)

Can you reconcile any of those things in you belief system?

 

[Triumph1300]

Can you reconcile any of those things in you belief system?

As you can see elsewhere, Christians here cannot even condemn a "Christian" leader who has been sleeping with a porno star.

And you think they will find a way to reconcile with another one preaching a different denomination?

 

[Zao is life]

You are free to believe as you wish….as we all are…but there is only one truth. And those who argue against it will not ever be able to say to Jesus….”no one told me I was wrong”….

You are free to believe as you wish….as we all are…but there is only one truth. And those who argue against it will not ever be able to say to Jesus….”no one told me I was wrong”….

Which is what you are free to do now, and will not be able to say to Jesus then

- because there is only one truth, and many have told you you are wrong

- but your mouth is open and so busy teaching your error - which is no truth at all - that your ears are shut to the truth in the scriptures (the real scriptures - not the JW own Bible corruption).

So you are not ever going to be able to say to Jesus "no one told me I was wrong”…. when He shuts your mouth and opens your ears to the one and only truth - because the true scriptures tell you that the Father exists, and life exists in the Father alone, and this life is IN THE WORD. The Word exists IN the Father, and the Father IN Him (Jesus said it), and the Father created ALL things by and through the Word, and the Word created ALL things, and exists BEFORE anything was made that was made.

His name is YHVH. YHVH IS SALVATION AND YHVH IS OUR RIGHTEOUSNESS - THE NAME AND TITLES OF JESUS.

 

[Zao is life]

Thanks for your reply. I don't think that answers the question , though I do appreciate your thoughts.

It answers the question from God's own words in scripture, which you do not regard as an answer.

 

[Button]

It answers the question from God's own words in scripture, which you do not regard as an answer.

I disagree.

 

[Zao is life]

I disagree.

I know. You do not agree that you are disagreeing with God's own words in scripture when you disagree with His own words. Pretty plain.

It's not a mountain, though, it's a molehill. Because God's own words are not my words, or your words. If I'm wrong, I'm wrong. If you are wrong, you are wrong. God's words stand - Romans 3:4.

- but the JW's have corrupted God's own words and written their own Bible in order to uphold their corruptions.

Are you a JW?

 

[Button]

I know. You do not agree that you are disagreeing with God's own words in scripture when you disagree with His own words. Pretty plain.

It's not a mountain, though, it's a molehill. Because God's own words are not my words, or your words. If I'm wrong, I'm wrong. If you are wrong, you are wrong. God's words stand - Romans 3:4.

- but the JW's have corrupted God's own words and written their own Bible in order to uphold their corruptions.

Are you a JW?

I do not disagree with God's own words.

I disagree that you know what they're teaching us.

I will also say that I find it disconcerting that you post has you saying,if I disagree with you I'm disagreeing with God's own words.