Who is "the god of this world"? God or satan?

[Zao is life]

I do not disagree with God's own words.

I disagree that you know what they're teaching us.

I will also say that I find it disconcerting that you post has you saying,if I disagree with you I'm disagreeing with God's own words.

I find it disconcerting that you imply that if I disagree with you I'm disagreeing with God's own words.

How many more shovels are we going to add to this molehill in order to turn it into a mountain?

Romans 3:4.

 

[Lambano]

The key phrase in the 2 Corinthians 4:4 quote is "the god of this aion (age)".

For we do not wrestle against flesh and blood, but against the rulers, against the authorities, against the cosmic powers over this present darkness, against the spiritual forces of evil in the heavenly places.. (Ephesians 6:12 ESV)

The eschatological framework is that the current Age is evil (see also Galatians 1:4), but the “Age to Come” will usher in the Kingdom of God. (Luke 18:30, Ephesians 2:7, Hebrews 6:5). Against this eschatological backdrop, the “god of this age” would be those powers and principalities and rulers of this present darkness.

 

[Button]

I find it disconcerting that you imply that if I disagree with you I'm disagreeing with God's own words.

Parroting my post is bad. Posting a false accusation regarding what my post actually says is corrupt.

How many more shovels are we going to add to this molehill in order to turn it into a mountain?

Romans 3:4.

None.
As I said, I don't question God's words. I question your understanding of what they teach.

 

[Zao is life]

Jesus is not Yahweh. He was “the firstborn of ALL creation” (Col 1:15)

JW corruptions of the word "firstborn" [G4416 prototokos] do not help your case:

4416
πρωτότοκος
prwtovtokos prototokos {pro-tot-ok'-os}
from 4413 and the alternate of 5088; first-born (usually as noun, literally or figuratively):--firstbegotten(-born).

From Pro: 4253 a primary preposition; "fore", i.e. in front of, prior (figuratively, superior) to:--above, ago, before, or ever. In the comparative, it retains the same significations.

and

5088
τίκτω
tivktw tikto {tik'-to}
a strengthened form of a primary teko tek'-o (which is used only as alternate in certain tenses); to produce (from seed, as a mother, a plant, the earth, etc.), literally or figuratively:--bear, be born, bring forth, be delivered, be in travail.

Jesus was begotten of God in the womb of a virgin. The Word who exists with YHVH and IN YHVH - who exists IN the Word - the life of YHVH was IN the Word - was begotten of YHVH in the womb of a virgin - YHVH in Christ and Christ in YHVH.

Begotten

3439 monogenes from 3441 and 1096; only-born, i.e. sole:--only (begotten, child).

3441 monos probably from 3306; remaining, i.e. sole or single; by implication, mere:--alone, only, by themselves.

1096 ginomai a prolongation and middle voice form of a primary verb; to cause to be ("gen"-erate), i.e. (reflexively) to become (come into being)

The Word became flesh (John 1:14).

 

[Zao is life]

Parroting my post is bad. Posting a false accusation regarding what my post actually says is corrupt.

None.
As I said, I don't question God's words. I question your understanding of what they teach.

You failed the test.

Your posts can be summarized with the words "I have to be right"

Romans 3:4

Which is the only reason I kept this going so long - to give you the rope you needed to fail the test

 

[Button]

You failed the test.

Your posts can be summarized with the words "I have to be right"

Romans 3:4

Which is the only reason I kept this going so long - to give you the rope you needed to fail the test

What arrogance. And at the same time,you're unable to display humility.

Especially when told you don't understand the words of God.

And yet,what you're describing above are your tactics in this thread.

 

[Aunty Jane]

- because there is only one truth, and many have told you you are wrong

That is actually reassuring because according to Jesus it is the “many” who are wrong....and the “few” who are on the right path to life (Matt 7:13-14)......I’ll believe Jesus...you can believe that god that the Catholic Church created...

but your mouth is open and so busy teaching your error - which is no truth at all - that your ears are shut to the truth in the scriptures (the real scriptures - not the JW own Bible corruption).

LOL....and yours is not teaching your own error? Is it your own ears that are shut to the truth?....because all the Scripture I show you is not from the NWT....it is from Christendom’s own Bibles.....
Are you arguing with yourself?

So you are not ever going to be able to say to Jesus "no one told me I was wrong”…. when He shuts your mouth and opens your ears to the one and only truth

Will you? The truth from God’s word is all I share, but the religious system of which you are a part, is the weeds of Jesus parable....the counterfeit “Christianity” that God must destroy....but you won’t believe that either.

the true scriptures tell you that the Father exists, and life exists in the Father alone, and this life is IN THE WORD. The Word exists IN the Father, and the Father IN Him (Jesus said it), and the Father created ALL things by and through the Word, and the Word created ALL things, and exists BEFORE anything was made that was made.

Listen to yourself....that is gobbledegook....
The Father is an eternal Being...who has always existed and always will.
His son is his “firstborn”....not the firstborn human but the firstborn of all his “sons”.

Col 1:15-17...ESV...
“He is the image of the invisible God, the firstborn of all creation. For by him all things were created, in heaven and on earth, visible and invisible, whether thrones or dominions or rulers or authorities—all things were created through him and for him. And he is before all things, and in him all things hold together.”

If you read that in plain English...what does it say?
Jesus is the visible image of an invisible God.....if the invisible man stood in front of a mirror what image would he have?

If ‘all things were created by him’, both ‘in heaven and on earth’, what does it mean when it says “all things were created THROUGH HIM and FOR HIM”?

If you do something “through” someone else that is called agency....acting on someone else’s behalf.
What is an Estate Agent? Or the agents used by movie stars?
If creation was for the son, why doesn’t it say he created all things for himself?

His name is YHVH. YHVH IS SALVATION AND YHVH IS OUR RIGHTEOUSNESS - THE NAME AND TITLES OF JESUS.

There is not a single verse in the whole Bible that has a clear and unequivocal statement from either Jesus or his Father that they share a name, deity, or that they are equal in any way.

All the Scripture that is presented as proof of a triune god is nothing of the sort. A doctrine cannot be established on suggestion and inference, especially when there is no clear statement.

You have been shown John 1:1 in Greek...now try John 10:31-36....how many “gods” (theos) are in that passage?

 

[Aunty Jane]

JW corruptions of the word "firstborn" [G4416 prototokos] do not help your case:

In plain English.....”G4416 prototokos”....not a word exclusively describing Jesus’ human birth....it means the “firstborn” of any creation...man, beast or God.

1. “the firstborn
   1. of man or beast
   2. of Christ, the first born of all creation”

Again if Christ is the “firstborn of ALL creation” (Col 1:15) then he had to exist before “ALL creation”...he is “the beginning of God’s creation” as Revelation 3:14 plainly states.....
Quoting Jesus’ own words.....he is “the faithful and true witness”....
“And to the angel of the church in Laodicea write: ‘The words of the Amen, the faithful and true witness, the beginning of God's creation.” (ESV)

Like I said...are you arguing with your own Scripture.....that is not from the NWT.

Begotten

3439 monogenes from 3441 and 1096; only-born, i.e. sole:--only (begotten, child).

You’ve lost the argument....his “only begotten” status applied from his own creation. He was a unique “son” in that he was “the firstborn of ALL creation”....he is the only direct creation of his God and Father. All other creation came “through” the Son.

The Word became flesh (John 1:14).

Yes....”the Word became flesh” because the Word was “with” the Father, and was “sent” by him to die a death that God could not. The Father is immortal and cannot die....Jesus had to be the exact equivalent of Adam to redeem his children.....the price was set in Eden.....he did not need to be God to provide the ransom price that justice demanded....all he needed to be was sinless, hence he had to come from outside the now flawed human race.

There is no logic in your posts.....

 

[Zao is life]

What arrogance. And at the same time,you're unable to display humility.

Especially when told you don't understand the words of God.

And yet,what you're describing above are your tactics in this thread.

Your opinions are not worth anyone paying any attention to. Not Jesus nor any prophet nor any apostle nor any Early Church Father nor any saint loyal to God and to His Word displayed the kind of flesh humility you require when saints are dealing with a heresy such as the JW heresy (a heresy which is devoid of the illumination of the eternal Holy Spirit of God - whom you assert is a "force").

I asked you directly if you are a JW and your silence is 'deafening' - but not golden.

You and the JW in this thread like one another's posts - meaning you agree with their views.

 

[Zao is life]

The Father is an eternal Being...who has always existed and always will.
His son is his “firstborn”....not the firstborn human but the firstborn of all his “sons”.

You are unable to differentiate between the Word of God who is God and existed with YHVH the Father and IN YHVH from eternity, and YHVH IN HIM from eternity -

and the Son (the Man) who is the Word who became flesh - God in human form - YHVH in Christ from His conception in the womb of Mary - and forevermore.

You do not understand how it is that the Son of God is alive [zao] forever (immortal) following His resurrection from the dead because He alone among human beings possesses eternal life [zoe] in Himself, being the Word in Whom the life [zoe] of YHVH God existed from eternity

- who took on human flesh and died for our sins and rose again from the dead, and is now alive [zao] to the ages of the ages, possessing immortality of Himself because He alone among human beings possesses eternal life [zoe] IN HIMSELF.

The eternal life [zoe aionios] that is given to those who, through the Messiah's eternal life [zoe] have been given eternal life [zoe aionios] IN CHRIST, is not in ourselves - it is in Christ alone (in Christ - 1 John 5:11 - the everlasting God who existed from eternity with the Father in human form - in whom the life [zoe] of YHVH has existed from eternity - John 1:4).

You will never understand it because you say that the Word of God that tells us that He existed BEFORE all things which were created BY HIM - The Son of God who possesses eternal life [zoe aionios] IN HIMSELF (only THE ETERNAL GOD YHVH possesses eternal life IN HIMSELF) - did not exist in the form of (the Word of YHVH who is IN YHVH) from eternity

You are lost because all JW's are lost because they have chosen a lie and call it "Truth".

 

[Aunty Jane]

You are unable to differentiate between the Word of God who is God and existed with the Father from eternity and IN the Father -

and the Son (the Man) who is the Word who became flesh.

You do not understand how it is that the Son of God is alive [zao] forever (immortal) following His resurrection from the dead because He alone among human beings possesses eternal life [zoe] in Himself, being the Word in Whom the life [zoe] of YHVH God existed from eternity

- who took on human flesh and died for our sins and rose again from the dead, and is now alive [zao] to the ages of the ages, possessing immortality of Himself because He alone among human beings possesses eternal life [zoe] IN HIMSELF.

The eternal life [zoe aionios] that is given to those who, through the Messiah's eternal life [zoe] have been given eternal life [zoe aionios] IN CHRIST, is not in ourselves - it is in Christ alone (the everlasting God who existed from eternity with the Father in whom the life [zoe] of YHVH has existed from eternity - John 1:4 - who became flesh).

You are lost because all JW's are lost because they have chosen a lie and call it "Truth".

You have no rebuttal....you are just rehashing the same errors....making empty assertions is not providing evidence for your position.

What if you are the one promoting the lies as truth? Would you know? Do those who are deceived by an expert conman, know that they are....until it’s too late?

Only the Father is eternal...the son had a beginning. If you don’t see that plaInly stated in the Scripture offered to you....that is entirely your problem.

You can go on believing as you wish.....it doesn’t make it truth.

 

[Zao is life]

You have no rebuttal....you are just rehashing the same errors....making empty assertions is not providing evidence for your position.

What if you are the one promoting the lies as truth? Would you know? Do those who are deceived by an expert conman, know that they are....until it’s too late?

Only the Father is eternal...the son had a beginning. If you don’t see that plaInly stated in the Scripture offered to you....that is entirely your problem.

You can go on believe as you wish.....it doesn’t make it truth.

You are calling the teaching of the Son of God and His apostles errors.

The only thing left to do for you is to pray that God will in His mercy lift the JW corruption of His doctrine that has you so completely blinded.

For now, so long

 

[Keiw]

I do not believe the verse is speaking about Satan being the God of this world. Satan is called the Prince of the world (not a God and not a King) but not the God of it. Certainly much of the world worships Satan in one form or another but in order to know whom is being spoken of we simply have to use the context:



2 Corinthians 4:4 In whom the god of this world hath blinded the minds of them which believe not, lest the light of the glorious gospel of Christ, who is the image of God, should shine unto them.

Some will say it's a little "g" on god so that means its not God. Not so. There are no capitals vs. small letters in the manuscripts. The small g is purely the translators opinion.


So who was it that "blinded the minds of them which believe not"?

It was God.

John 12:40 He hath blinded their eyes, and hardened their heart; that they should not see with their eyes, nor understand with their heart, and be converted, and I should heal them.


The HE here is God and this is very similar language. God blinded them so they could not convert and be healed! Isn't that what the other verse is saying?

Romans 11:7 What then? Israel hath not obtained that which he seeketh for; but the election hath obtained it, and the rest were blinded
Romans 11:8 (According as it is written, God hath given them the spirit of slumber, eyes that they should not see, and ears that they should not hear) unto this day.


God does the blinding!

While Satan can be considered a false god of this world, he simply isn't the one being spoken of because it is God which blinds so people cannot convert to Christ and be healed.
There are no capitals in the manuscripts.

Gen_24:3 And I will make thee swear by the LORD, the God of heaven, and the God of the earth, that thou shalt not take a wife unto my son of the daughters of the Canaanites, among whom I dwell:

Isa_54:5 For thy Maker is thine husband; the LORD of hosts is his name; and thy Redeemer the Holy One of Israel; The God of the whole earth shall he be called.

Revelation 11:4 these are the two olive trees, and the two candlesticks standing before the god of the earth.

Is this Satan because it is believed that saying "god of something" rather than just "god" means that it isn't the one true God? If Satan is the supposed "god of this world" then he must also be the "god of the earth" right?

Remember, there are no capitals in the manuscripts. god and God are spelled exactly the same way so we can't go by that. Naturally, context matters. Naturally, using other scriptures to help us understand scriptures matter. Forget tradition, forget what has been assumed for generations and look without assumption at all the evidence and decide who is doing the blinding in the world.

satan-god( small g) of this world. Small g god= has godlike qualities. It is not calling him God. He has mislead 99% minimum all throughout since Eden. Actually the true God at both John 1:1 and 2 Cor 4:4 is called Ho Theos=God, and the Word and satan are both called Theos-Why? god is why. All can see in the Greek the true God is called a different Greek word than both the word and satan. Both have godlike qualities, but Jesus has God behind him, satan does not.

 

[Button]

I do not believe the verse is speaking about Satan being the God of this world. Satan is called the Prince of the world (not a God and not a King) but not the God of it. Certainly much of the world worships Satan in one form or another but in order to know whom is being spoken of we simply have to use the context:



2 Corinthians 4:4 In whom the god of this world hath blinded the minds of them which believe not, lest the light of the glorious gospel of Christ, who is the image of God, should shine unto them.

Some will say it's a little "g" on god so that means its not God. Not so. There are no capitals vs. small letters in the manuscripts. The small g is purely the translators opinion.


So who was it that "blinded the minds of them which believe not"?

It was God.

John 12:40 He hath blinded their eyes, and hardened their heart; that they should not see with their eyes, nor understand with their heart, and be converted, and I should heal them.


The HE here is God and this is very similar language. God blinded them so they could not convert and be healed! Isn't that what the other verse is saying?

Romans 11:7 What then? Israel hath not obtained that which he seeketh for; but the election hath obtained it, and the rest were blinded
Romans 11:8 (According as it is written, God hath given them the spirit of slumber, eyes that they should not see, and ears that they should not hear) unto this day.


God does the blinding!

While Satan can be considered a false god of this world, he simply isn't the one being spoken of because it is God which blinds so people cannot convert to Christ and be healed.
There are no capitals in the manuscripts.

Gen_24:3 And I will make thee swear by the LORD, the God of heaven, and the God of the earth, that thou shalt not take a wife unto my son of the daughters of the Canaanites, among whom I dwell:

Isa_54:5 For thy Maker is thine husband; the LORD of hosts is his name; and thy Redeemer the Holy One of Israel; The God of the whole earth shall he be called.

Revelation 11:4 these are the two olive trees, and the two candlesticks standing before the god of the earth.

Is this Satan because it is believed that saying "god of something" rather than just "god" means that it isn't the one true God? If Satan is the supposed "god of this world" then he must also be the "god of the earth" right?

Remember, there are no capitals in the manuscripts. god and God are spelled exactly the same way so we can't go by that. Naturally, context matters. Naturally, using other scriptures to help us understand scriptures matter. Forget tradition, forget what has been assumed for generations and look without assumption at all the evidence and decide who is doing the blinding in the world.

Interesting perspective.

Jesus told his disciples he taught in parables so not everyone would understand and come to repentance.
Understanding was given by God alone.

Satan has to be subordinate to God when God is sovereign and has dominion over all creation.

 

[Adventageous]

I do not believe the verse is speaking about Satan being the God of this world. Satan is called the Prince of the world (not a God and not a King) but not the God of it.

You are partly, and in the majority thereof, mistaken, though I can see why.

The argumentation that the original language it was written in has "... no capitals vs. small letters in the manuscripts." is partially correct, partially incorrect. The mss, or autographs, and their copies, into various languages are written, originally in all UNCIALS (MAJUSCULES) (UPPER CASE only), and later in miniscules (lower case only) & cursives (also lowercase). This means that the texts are either all UPPER or lower casing. You are correct that there is no real mixture of the two cases in the early mss, but only found in later translational mss. You are correct that the lowercase "g" is a choice. It is a correct choice.

Even the Reformation (Martin Luther, Melanchthon, Oeclampadius, Vitringa, etc), and later commentators (Charles Haddon Spurgeon, &c.) generally agree that the context refers to 'satan', 'devil' and not to JEHOVAH.

For example:, commenting on 2 Cor. 4:4 (cited from E-Sword):

• John Wesley (Methodist) - "The God of this world - What a sublime and horrible description of Satan! ..."
• TSK (Treasury of Scripture Knowledge) - all references to satan, devil, dragon, &c.
• Jamieson, Fausset & Brown - "The worldly make him their God (Php_3:19). He is, in fact, “the prince of the power of the air, the spirit that ruleth in the children of disobedience” (Eph_2:2)."
• B. W. Johnson - "The god of this world. See Joh_12:31, Joh_12:40; Php_3:19. Satan is called the prince of this world, and the god of this world. By his devices he blinds the eyes of men so they should not see the light of gospel."
• David Guzik - "Those who are perishing and for whom the gospel is veiled have been blinded by Satan, the god of this age."
• Robert Hawker - "By the god of this world, is meant Satan."
• Matthew Henry - "The god of this world hath blinded their minds, 2Co_4:4. They are under the influence and power of the devil, who is here called the god of this world, and elsewhere the prince of this world ..."
• John Darby - "the blinding of [meaning 'by'] Satan."
• John Gill - "in which the character of Satan is given, who is here styled "the god of this world"; just as he is by Christ, "the prince of this world", Joh_12:31 ..."
• Cambridge Bible - "4. in whom the god of this world] i.e. the devil, who is called the prince or ruler of this world in Joh_12:31; Joh_14:30; Joh_16:11. So also Mat_4:9; Luk_4:6; Eph_2:2; Eph_6:12. He is so called because for the present he has power in it, Rev_12:12. The early fathers, in their zeal against the two gods (one good and one evil) of the Manichaeans and some sects of the Gnostics, repudiate this interpretation, and render, in defiance of the plain meaning, ‘God hath blinded the understandings of the unbelievers of this world.’ On this Calvin makes some wise remarks: “We see what the heat of controversy does in such disputes. If all these men had read the words of Paul with a tranquil mind, it would never have come into their mind so to wrest his words into a forced sense. But because their adversaries bore hardly on them, they thought more of vanquishing them than of endeavouring to ascertain the mind of Paul.”"
• Joseph Benson - "the god of this world — Grandis et horribilis descriptio Satanæ, a grand and terrible description of Satan, says Bengelius. Satan is repeatedly styled by our Lord, the prince of this world. See Joh_12:31; Joh_14:30; Joh_16:11; that is, the prince of those who are men of the world, (Psa_17:14,) and who freely subject themselves to him. Thus, (Eph_6:12,) he and his associates in rebellion against God are termed the rulers of the darkness of this world. Satan is termed by the apostle here, the god of this world, because he makes use of the things of this world"
• Biblical Illustrator - "Thirdly, is the author and worker of this blindness, that is the devil: “The god of this world.”"

Though there are also a few such persons as George Haydock, and Adam Clarke (who had some Bible doubting issues and liberalism) whom disagreed and went with some of the apostate so-called 'church fathers opinions', it is still worthy to note that even according to Adam Clarke that the commonly understood meaning was "satan" - "proper subjects for Satan to work on;", "the common opinion".

I am not here arguing majority opinion (ad majorem, or ad populum), but simply displaying the historical continuum, and I do not really care what commentators think on the whole. I am simply sampling them in example.

The reference "the god of this world" (KJB), or in GNT TR, "ο θεος του αιωνος", or transliterated into English as "o theos tou aiwnos" is to the fallen angel, Lucifer / Heylel / satan / devil / dragon / serpent / Leviathan / Beelzebub, &c., and not to JEHOVAH Elohiym, let alone the Father's Person / Being.

The context is in regards to the "lost" (2 Cor. 4:3 KJB) and what is "In them" (2 Cor. 4:4 KJB). God is not in the lost, and the lost are not in God (as per Jhn. 8:44, 13:8, 14:30, see also Rev. 3:20 KJB).

Additionally, the definite article does not automatically mean it refers to JEHOVAH, since there are other places in scripture, which utilize the definite article, and clearly refers to pagan deities, or devils. As for instance, in brief (non-exhaustive):

Jdg_16:23 ... Dagon their god ...​

Jdg 16:23 ... τῷ Δαγων θεῷ αὐτῶν ...​

2Ch_32:21 ... his god, ...​

2Ch 32:21 ... τοῦ θεοῦ αὐτοῦ, ...​

Amo_2:8 ... their god.​

Amo 2:8 ... τοῦ θεοῦ αὐτῶν.​

Amo_8:14 ... Thy god, ...​

Amo 8:14 ... ὁ θεός σου, ...​

Jon_1:5 ... his god, ...​

Jon 1:5 ... τὸν θεὸν αὐτῶν ...​

​

Dan_5:23 ... the gods ...​

Dan 5:23 ... τοὺς θεοὺς ...​

Zep_2:11 ... the gods of the earth...​

Zep 2:11 ... τοὺς θεοὺς τῶν ἐθνῶν τῆς γῆς...​

​

Act_7:43 ... your god ...​

Act 7:43 ... του θεου ...τους ...​

Act_14:11 ... The gods ...​

Act 14:11 ... οι θεοι ...​

I will now address the context itself, and in the whole of the scripture (in brief) to demonstrate that the context refers to "satan", and not to JEHOVAH as some incorrectly argue (originally battling Manichaeism, and went in the wrong direction with the text).

 

[Button]

We're talking about the subtly of God's message. This video gives us a great perspective ,a wider understanding,of the crucifixion of Jesus.

 

[Adventageous]

I do not believe the verse is speaking about Satan being the God of this world. Satan is called the Prince of the world ...

Continuing from my previous response - Who is "the god of this world"? God or satan?

The word "prince" (Jhn. 12:31,40, 16:11. G758, "αρχων", "archwn") means "ruler over others", as does the word "God / god" (like the word Boss / boss).

Satan is called this throughout scripture:

• Daniel 10:13 KJB - “... the prince of the kingdom of Persia ...”
• Daniel 10:20 KJB - “... the prince of Persia ...”
• Matthew 9:34 KJB - “... devils through the prince of the devils.”
• Matthew 12:24 KJB - “... cast out devils, but by Beelzebub the prince of the devils.”
• Mark 3:22 KJB - “... Beelzebub, and by the prince of the devils casteth he out devil.”
• Luke 11:15 KJB - “... Beelzebub the chief of the devils.”
• John 12:31 KJB - “... the prince of this world ...”
• John 14:30 KJB - “... the prince of this world ...”
• John 16:11 KJB - “... the prince of this world is judged.”
• Romans 8:38 KJB - “... nor angels, nor principalities ...”
• Ephesians 2:2 KJB - “... the prince of the power of the air ...”
• Ephesians 6:12 KJB - “... against principalities, against powers, against the rulers of the darkness of this world, against spiritual wickedness in high [places] ...”
• Colossians 1:16 KJB - “... thrones, or dominions, or principalities, or powers ...”
• Colossians 2:15 KJB - “... principalities and powers ...”

Even Etymologically it simply means ruler, overseer:

"Prince (n.) c. 1200, "governor, overseer, magistrate; leader; great man, chief; preeminent representative of a group or class" (mid-12c. as a surname), from Old French prince "prince, noble lord" (12c.), from Latin princeps (genitive principis) "first person, chief leader; ruler, sovereign," noun use of adjective meaning "that takes first," from primus "first" (see prime (adj.)) + root of capere "to take" (from PIE root *kap- "to grasp"). ..." - Prince - Etymology, Origin & Meaning​

Webster's 1828 dictionary, chief / primary / PRINCipal definition is:

"PRINCE, noun prins. [Latin princeps.]​

1. In a general sense, a sovereign; the chief and independent ruler of a nation or state. Thus when we speak of the princes of Europe, we include emperors and kings. Hence, a chief in general; as a prince of the celestial host." - Websters Dictionary 1828 - Webster's Dictionary 1828 - Prince​

Only later did it come to secondarily mean someone subject to another (as a son of a King). It originally means "principality", "chief", "first" above others.

Satan is also called "god" in many places, and devils as "gods", and even humans are called "gods" in places (in both good and bad senses, not as Deity of course, but as rulers).

Adam / Eve, in the beginning, before sin, were as "gods" knowing only good, but after sin, becoming "as gods" knowing "good and evil".

Lucifer / Heylel (aka satan, devil, old serpent, dragon) was once "cast out" (Rev. 12:7-9 KJB) of heaven (where all is light and glory; Rev. 21:25, 22:5 KJB) and eventually fell through "outer darkness" (2 Pet. 2:4; came to) to the earth (Gen. 3:1 KJB).

Satan was later called "the god of this world" (2 Cor. 4:4 KJB), having received dominion (Gen. 1:26,28 KJB) and "power" (Luk. 4:6 KJB) from the first Adam (Gen. 3:5-6; 1 Cor. 15:45; 1 Tim. 2:13 KJB) who submitted to the temptation of the devil through his wife Eve (as medium; Gen. 3:6; Rev. 12:9 KJB), and so became the ruler "of darkness of this world" (Eph. 6:12 KJB), and sits upon the "throne of iniquity" (Psa. 94:20; Psa. 1:1; Isa. 14:13; Amo. 6:3; Rev. 2:13, 13:2, 16:10 KJB. &c.)

He was able to travel from this world as the head representative thereof, and present himself at the gate of God in Heaven (Job 1:6-12, 2:1-7; 1 Kin. 22:19-23; 2 Chr. 18:18-22 KJB). However, since Calvary, the Last Adam, Jesus Christ, obtained the dominion back as the new Head of redeemed humanity (1 Cor. 15:45-47 KJB), and so the devil was "cast down" (Rev. 12:10) from being that representative then (AD 31).

Yet, satan still rules his lost from the "high places" in the earth (Eph. 6:12 KJB).

... to be continued ...

 

[Adventageous]

... Satan is also called "god" in many places, and devils as "gods", and even humans are called "gods" in places (in both good and bad senses, not as Deity of course, but as rulers).

Adam / Eve, in the beginning, before sin, were as "gods" knowing only good, but after sin, becoming "as gods" knowing "good and evil".

Lucifer / Heylel (aka satan, devil, old serpent, dragon) was once "cast out" (Rev. 12:7-9 KJB) of heaven (where all is light and glory; Rev. 21:25, 22:5 KJB) and eventually fell through "outer darkness" (2 Pet. 2:4; came to) to the earth (Gen. 3:1 KJB).

Satan was later called "the god of this world" (2 Cor. 4:4 KJB), having received dominion (Gen. 1:26,28 KJB) and "power" (Luk. 4:6 KJB) from the first Adam (Gen. 3:5-6; 1 Cor. 15:45; 1 Tim. 2:13 KJB) who submitted to the temptation of the devil through his wife Eve (as medium; Gen. 3:6; Rev. 12:9 KJB), and so became the ruler "of darkness of this world" (Eph. 6:12 KJB), and sits upon the "throne of iniquity" (Psa. 94:20; Psa. 1:1; Isa. 14:13; Amo. 6:3; Rev. 2:13, 13:2, 16:10 KJB. &c.)

He was able to travel from this world as the head representative thereof, and present himself at the gate of God in Heaven (Job 1:6-12, 2:1-7; 1 Kin. 22:19-23; 2 Chr. 18:18-22 KJB). However, since Calvary, the Last Adam, Jesus Christ, obtained the dominion back as the new Head of redeemed humanity (1 Cor. 15:45-47 KJB), and so the devil was "cast down" (Rev. 12:10) from being that representative then (AD 31).

Yet, satan still rules his lost from the "high places" in the earth (Eph. 6:12 KJB).

... to be continued ...

In Genesis, it was satan, by the serpent, who blinded mankind, leading them into darkness (Gen. 3:1-7 KJB), taking them as prisoners and captive to his will. Their eyes (mental) became dim unto righteousness, and opened unto evil. It was Jesus who came and had to restore the light lost, by the Gospel. Jesus heals blindness. The devil causes blindness. God allows blindness. God did not take credit for their blindness, but laid it squarely upon the devil (Gen. 3:14, "... the serpent, Because thou hast done this ..."), and responds to the devils actions, by taking counter actions (Gen. 3:15,21 KJB).

In scripture, it is sometimes attributed to God's allowance for what the devil does, since the devil needs allowance from God to do anything, see Jesus and Peter (Luk. 22:31):

Luk_22:31 And the Lord said, Simon, Simon, behold, Satan hath desired to have you, that he may sift you as wheat:​

Other examples of such as with King David in the numbering of the peoples:

2Sa 24:1 And again the anger of the LORD was kindled against Israel, and he moved David against them to say, Go, number Israel and Judah.​

​

1Ch_21:1 And Satan stood up against Israel, and provoked David to number Israel.​

It was the devil / satan, by God's allowance, in punishing David for pride in relying upon physical arms, numbers rather than on God.

Similarly, other examples are found in Job (Job 1:7-16,21, 2:1-10 KJB), and in 1 Kin. and 2 Chr.

Notice in Job it is called "the fire of God", but in reality it was satan accomplishing the destruction by such elements ("the LORD said unto Satan, Behold, all that he hath is in thy power; only upon himself put not forth thine hand", "The fire of God is fallen from heaven", "the LORD said unto Satan, Behold, he is in thine hand; but save his life", "Satan forth from the presence of the LORD, and smote Job with", and even Job did not fully understand, "the LORD gave, and the LORD hath taken away; blessed be the name of the LORD" for it was only by God's allowance of the devils actions, not by action of God that Job's possessions and health were taken away). Continuing in Job, the devil was even working in Job's friends (Job 4:12-21, 42:7 KJB) and it was God who restored what the devil had stolen (Job 42:10). The Bible is clear that it is the devil which steals, destroys (Jhn. 8:44 KJB).

In 1 Kin. 22:19-24; 2 Chr. 18:18-23, the "lying spirit" (satan) was again amongst the councils of God in heaven, and God allowed him to do what he would do (lie, deceive, blind). God did not command satan to lie, but simply allowed satan to do what he was going to do, to punish a wicked king. Even the serpent serves the purposes of God's ultimate will, even as a staff in the hand of Moses.

In 2 Cor. 12:7 Paul ascribes the messenger of his partial blindness to satan by God's merciful allowance.

So, in the days of Moses, how were the minds of men "blinded"? By the devil who harrassed them in the wilderness, and God allowed "serpents", "scorpions", to do so because of their hardness of heart / unbelief / lack of faith. In 2 Cor. 13:12-16, it is the devil which blinds, but it is always God who gives light.

2Co 3:12 Seeing then that we have such hope, we use great plainness of speech:​

2Co 3:13 And not as Moses, which put a vail over his face, that the children of Israel could not stedfastly look to the end of that which is abolished:​

2Co 3:14 But their minds were blinded: for until this day remaineth the same vail untaken away in the reading of the old testament; which vail is done away in Christ.​

2Co 3:15 But even unto this day, when Moses is read, the vail is upon their heart.​

2Co 3:16 Nevertheless when it shall turn to the Lord, the vail shall be taken away.​

​

2Co 4:1 Therefore seeing we have this ministry, as we have received mercy, we faint not;​

2Co 4:2 But have renounced the hidden things of dishonesty, not walking in craftiness, nor handling the word of God deceitfully; but by manifestation of the truth commending ourselves to every man's conscience in the sight of God.​

2Co 4:3 But if our gospel be hid, it is hid to them that are lost:​

2Co 4:4 In whom the god of this world hath blinded the minds of them which believe not, lest the light of the glorious gospel of Christ, who is the image of God, should shine unto them.​

2Co 4:5 For we preach not ourselves, but Christ Jesus the Lord; and ourselves your servants for Jesus' sake.​

2Co 4:6 For God, who commanded the light to shine out of darkness, hath shined in our hearts, to give the light of the knowledge of the glory of God in the face of Jesus Christ.​

The same goes for other texts such as Jhn. 12:37-41; Isa. 6:8-12; Rom. 11:7-10,16-26, &c. When texts say that God hardeneth, it must be in the same context knowing that there is an enemy (satan / devil) which brings unbelief to the heart (Gen. 3:1-7 KJB). Consider that OT texts likewise say God hardened Pharaoh's heart, but other texts say Pharaoh hardened his own heart (same contexts) by refusing the counsels of God through Moses, by listening to the lying spirit of Egypt (satan / devil) rather than to the Holy Spirit working in Moses. God brought circumstances and choices, which such persons as Pharaoh must choose between light and darkness, and some men choose to love darkness rather than light.

Joh_3:19 And this is the condemnation, that light is come into the world, and men loved darkness rather than light, because their deeds were evil.​

Notice, just as the "lying spirit" (satan) was allowed to be sent by God in the OT (1 Kin. 22; 2 Chr. 1; Job KJB), so too also in the NT, for those who reject the Light (Jesus / God), there is only one other option (devil / satan):

2Th 2:10 And with all deceivableness of unrighteousness in them that perish; because they received not the love of the truth, that they might be saved.​

2Th 2:11 And for this cause God shall send them strong delusion, that they should believe a lie:​

2Th 2:12 That they all might be damned who believed not the truth, but had pleasure in unrighteousness.​

When men reject the light sent / commanded by God, only darkness remains. When men reject the real God of Creation, they accept the rule of the "god of this world (present evil world)" satan in God's stead / place.

God:

​

Isa_42:7 To open the blind eyes, to bring out the prisoners from the prison, and them that sit in darkness out of the prison house.​

devil:

Joh_10:21 Others said, These are not the words of him that hath a devil. Can a devil open the eyes of the blind?​

 

[ewq1938]

You are correct that the lowercase "g" is a choice.

Indeed. Now, who is being spoken of here in verse 14:

Co 3:13 And not as Moses, which put a vail over his face, that the children of Israel could not stedfastly look to the end of that which is abolished:
2Co 3:14 But their minds were blinded: for until this day remaineth the same vail untaken away in the reading of the old testament; which vail is done away in Christ.
2Co 3:15 But even unto this day, when Moses is read, the vail is upon their heart.
2Co 3:16 Nevertheless when it shall turn to the Lord, the vail shall be taken away.

 

[Adventageous]

Indeed. Now, who is being spoken of here in verse 14:

Co 3:13 And not as Moses, which put a vail over his face, that the children of Israel could not stedfastly look to the end of that which is abolished:
2Co 3:14 But their minds were blinded: for until this day remaineth the same vail untaken away in the reading of the old testament; which vail is done away in Christ.
2Co 3:15 But even unto this day, when Moses is read, the vail is upon their heart.
2Co 3:16 Nevertheless when it shall turn to the Lord, the vail shall be taken away.

I already wrote the answer in the three previous responses. Please confer with those replies.