If this passage is read with an open heart and an honest mind, it becomes clear that it is not speaking of God becoming a servant, but of a Son becoming a servant.
This is circular reasoning, on two counts. First, you're presuming that those who agree with you are the ones who "read with an open heart and honest mind." But you may not be, so be careful in making that claim against those who disagree with you.
Second, you're presuming that the Son isn't God, yet that is what the passage states.
Yahweh formed His Son into a Servant for the learning of obedience and for the suffering of death, as a propitiation for sin.
Where is that stated in Phil. 2:6-8?
Here is the basis of Paul's exhortation which you need to unlock its truth.
Isaiah 49:5 And now says the LORD, who formed me from the womb to be His Servant, to bring Jacob back to Him…
Yahweh is the former - the divine craftsman who shaped Christ's Character to be like His Own.
Others have also been formed from the Womb like Jeremiah (Jeremiah 1:5)
Again, once you under Who is forming and why they are being formed you will leave you Trinitarian formula behind.
What does any of that have to do with Phil. 2:6-8?
Heb 1:2 but in these last days he has spoken to us
by his Son, whom he appointed the heir of all things,
through whom also he created the world.
...
Heb 1:8
But of the Son he says, “Your throne, O God, is forever and ever, the scepter of uprightness is the scepter of your kingdom.
Heb 1:9 You have loved righteousness and hated wickedness; therefore God, your God, has anointed you with the oil of gladness beyond your companions.”
Heb 1:10
And, “You, Lord, laid the foundation of the earth in the beginning, and the heavens are the work of your hands;
Heb 1:11
they will perish, but you remain; they will all wear out like a garment,
Heb 1:12
like a robe you will roll them up, like a garment they will be changed. But you are the same, and your years will have no end.”
The Father says "of the Son . . . You Lord, laid the foundations of the earth in the beginning, and the heavens are the work of your hands; they will perish, but you remain; they will all wear out like a garment, like a robe you will roll them up, like a garment they will be changed. But you are the same, and your years will have no end."
But when we look at where that came from:
Psa 102:1 A Prayer of one afflicted, when he is faint and pours out his complaint before the LORD.
Hear my prayer, O LORD; let my cry come to you!
...
Psa 102:24 “
O my God,” I say, “take me not away in the midst of my days— you whose years endure throughout all generations!”
Psa 102:25
Of old you laid the foundation of the earth, and the heavens are the work of your hands.
Psa 102:26
They will perish, but you will remain; they will all wear out like a garment. You will change them like a robe, and they will pass away,
Psa 102:27
but you are the same, and your years have no end.
The writer of Hebrews clearly has the Father applying a passage about Yahweh
to the Son. There is only one way to understand that--the Son is also Yahweh, according to the Father.
You will recall this in John
For this reason the Jews were seeking all the more to kill Him, because He not only was breaking the Sabbath, but also was calling God His own Father, making Himself equal with God. (John 5:18)
He never called himself God, rather, he perfectly revealed God’s character through obedient Sonship.
You're missing the obvious with John 5:18, even though you bolded it--by Jesus referring to himself as the Son of God, that is, by "calling God his own Father," he was "making himself equal with God." For that reason the Jews tried to kill him.
It happened again in John 10:33-36. And then in John 8:58, the Jews wanted to stone him for claiming to have absolute existence, which is an attribute of God alone. He absolutely was calling himself God.
Have you considered what privileges he laid aside to become the Son of Man? It seems you haven’t, because dogma still has a grip on your thinking.
What was he prior to becoming the Son of Man?
And for this, among many other reasons I don’t use that version, it carries a strong Trinitarian bias. Jesus was not born of a woman to partake in divine nature; you know that. The apostles consistently speak of him as being like us in every respect.
Yet you would set that aside to introduce a second nature?
I find it strange how quickly you’re willing to alter the meaning and intent of Paul’s teaching, treating it as though he were describing your incarnation, when you know what he is actually saying.
Again, you're missing the forest for the trees. The NIV simply makes more clear what is actually being said in the Greek. It essentially states nothing different from the other translations, properly understood.
Of course Jesus was like us--truly and fully human. So, no, I am setting aside nothing. The issue is that John 1:1, 14 and Phil. 2:6-8 show that God, the Son, became human.
But, God
cannot cease to be God. Therefore, he must necessarily have been
both truly God and truly man. Paul most definitely
is describing the incarnation.
Good questions!
I asked you earlier: what privileges did Christ relinquish to become the Son of Man and die as such?
If you cannot answer that, you will never truly understand what He emptied himself of, and why.
You're making certain assumptions that I cannot know, so I cannot answer. What does "Son of man" mean? Who was he prior to becoming the Son of Man?
I understand the truth because I followed Paul's reasonings and understood how the OT & NT agree.
Except you haven't, as I have pointed out.
Here is some homework for you to consider:
Compare these passages to Isaiah’s Servant prophecies:
- Isaiah 45:21–25 → Philippians 2:9–11
- Isaiah 50:5 → Philippians 2:8
- Isaiah 52:13 → Philippians 2:9
- Isaiah 53:10; 60:21; 61:3 → Philippians 2:11
- Isaiah 42:6; 49:6 → Philippians 2:15
- Isaiah 49:4 → Philippians 2:16
Paul encourages you to return to Isaiah, to meditate on the suffering Servant and understand his example.
Not necessary. Stick with the immediate context of Phil. 2:6-8
before branching out, and that includes, as I pointed out, a necessary understanding of some important Greek words. It will never do to just go proof-text all over the place and
think you have supported your view when you haven't even dealt with the actual text of the passage in question.
Besides, there is an abundance of other context throughout the NT that you're not taking into account.