Who is "the god of this world"? God or satan?

[Keiw]

Moses wrote of ELOHIM = PLURAL

The PLURAL/3 of ELOHIM begins in Genesis chapter 1 = written by the Holy Spirit thru Moses

In Hebrew for the true living God-Elohim translates-the supreme one--nothing plural about it for him.

 

[ewq1938]

In Hebrew for the true living God-Elohim translates-the supreme one--nothing plural about it for him.

Incorrect. In Hebrew it is whether the verb being used is singular or plural that decides if the noun is plural or not. The reason it is Elohim with the plural ending of "im" is because the verb "make" is plural. So, the rules of Hebrew grammar demand that "God" is plural because it is not one singular person/being that is doing the making of humanity according to the text.

 

[JLB]

No, and no one does so you have created a strawman fallacy.

God is the God of the Aion, not satan. satan is not the god of anything. satan is the ruler of the kosmos, which is the word used in 1 John 2:15-16. Start studying Greek. There are great tools written by experts on the language.

I‘m glad you agree, that God is not the God of the world which is comprised of the lust of the flesh, the lust of the eyes, and the pride of life.

 

[ewq1938]

I‘m glad you agree, that God is not the God of the world which is comprised of the lust of the flesh, the lust of the eyes, and the pride of life.

But Paul spoke of God in 2 Cor when he said two times that God of this Aion blinds people. The context there is never about satan. People just assume it's satan because blinding ppl sounds like something satan would do, and something God would not but it is indeed about God doing it for His purposes.

 

[David in NJ]

In Hebrew for the true living God-Elohim translates-the supreme one--nothing plural about it for him.

Elohim always remains PLURAL but translates singular because the THREE are ECHAD/ONE = Matthew 3:16

#1 - As soon as Jesus/the Word was baptized, He went up out of the water.
#2 - Suddenly the heavens were opened, and He saw the Spirit of God descending like a dove and resting on Him.
#3 - And a Voice from Heaven/Father said, “This is My beloved Son, in whom I am well pleased!”

 

[David in NJ]

“No such thing as gravity”???
I’ll remember that next time I drop something and wonder why it fell down and not up....

DECEPTION ACCOMPLISHED

 

[David in NJ]

Israel-NEVER served a trinity while serving Jehovah. Israel knows 0 about God being a trinity, Thus did NOT use Elohim as plural for him as the blind guides say they did to fit their own false reasonings on who God is.

The HOLY SPIRIT uses PLURAL in the word usage of ELOHIM to Define:
a.) The FATHER
b.) The WORD/SON
c.) The HOLY SPIRIT

JESUS Said that we should never speak against the HOLY SPIRIT = aka: The SPIRIT of TRUTH

NOTE: Israel/Jews rejected the Plurality of Elohim when they crucified The SON

 

[Aunty Jane]

DECEPTION ACCOMPLISHED

Not a reasoned response David.....
If gravity does not exist then you are forced into a corner trying to explain its absense. The Universe functions on gravity and so does life on planet Earth....I can’t fall up...only down. I can’t drop something up...only down.

Birds can fly because they have wings, so do airplanes....without which flight would be impossible. How can you be led to believe something that is an integral part of our existence, becoming unexplainable unless we deny the truth of it.

The HOLY SPIRIT uses PLURAL in the word usage of ELOHIM to Define:
a.) The FATHER
b.) The WORD/SON
c.) The HOLY SPIRIT

JESUS Said that we should never speak against the HOLY SPIRIT = aka: The SPIRIT of TRUTH

Have you never heard of the plural of majesty? When Monarchs spoke of themselves in the first person, they used “the Royal WE”.....plural without being two or more persons. It was a magnification of their position as Ruler of their Kingdom....an indicator of their elevated status.

When Queen Victoria said...”WE are not amused” she was speaking about herself alone.

Using the plural of majesty is not suggesting that God is more than one entity.....Israel served only one God and He was never presented like the pagan gods, who were often portrayed in triads. (Deut 6:4)
These Triads are much older than Christianity.....but are in stark contrast to the monotheistic “one God” of Israel.
Jesus was Jewish and worshipped the same God as his people did. He called Yahweh his “God and Father”.
John 20:17...
To Mary Magdalene after his resurrection......”Jesus said to her: “Stop clinging to me, for I have not yet ascended to the Father. But go to my brothers and say to them, ‘I am ascending to my Father and your Father and to my God and your God.’”

NOTE: Israel/Jews rejected the Plurality of Elohim when they crucified The SON

The Jews rejected Jesus as “the son of God”....for the simple reason that he never once said he was “God” (with a capital “G”) but only ever identified himself as “the Son of God”. The Catholic church is responsible for the blatant mistranslation because they were the ones who introduced the concept of three gods in one person. The Jews never even heard of such a thing....therefore Jesus never taught it.

John 10:31-36 shows us what the Jews accused Jesus of being, and Jesus’ response shows his position in relation to his God and Father.....in a Greek Interlinear, read those verses and note the use of the definite article (ho)...where is it....and where it isn’t.....

“Once again the Jews picked up stones to stone him. 32  Jesus replied to them: “I displayed to you many fine works from the Father. For which of those works are you stoning me?” 33 The Jews answered him: “We are stoning you, not for a fine work, but for blasphemy; for you, although being a man, make yourself a god.” (theos) 34  Jesus answered them: “Is it not written in your Law, ‘I said: “You are gods”’? (theos) 35  If he called ‘gods’ (theos) those against whom the word of God (ho theos) came—and yet the scripture cannot be nullified— 36  do you say to me whom the Father sanctified and sent into the world, ‘You blaspheme,’ because I said, ‘I am God’s (ho theos) Son’?

The word “theos” is used there to identify the ancient judges in Israel, but without the definite article (ho) it simply means a “divine personage” or “one who represents a divine personage”. The definite article is also missing from the accusation made by the Jews, indicating that they were not accusing Jesus of claiming to be “God”, but claiming divinity as God’s Son.

The distinction between the true God, Yahweh and others who qualify to be ‘divinely authorized’ is shown by the use of the definite article....clearly visible in Greek but ignored in English to support a doctrine that didn’t exist in Bible times. These are Jesus’ own words, but mistranslated in all their Bibles.

The blind will never see it....because they don’t want to.....they can’t afford to.....this teaching is the very foundation of all false worship, including Christendom’s. A multiplicity of gods is worshipped in all of them....this one is just disguised by mistranslating Scripture....but it is the greatest deception of all...a distortion of the very person of the Almighty....the substitution of a foreign “god” for the “one true God” of Israel....a violation of the first Commandment. (Ex 20:3; John 17:3)

If the foundations of any structure are not sound, then when a storm or earthquake hits, the whole structure will collapse. In a world ruled by the devil, nothing is as it appears to be....

 

[Keiw]

The HOLY SPIRIT uses PLURAL in the word usage of ELOHIM to Define:
a.) The FATHER
b.) The WORD/SON
c.) The HOLY SPIRIT

JESUS Said that we should never speak against the HOLY SPIRIT = aka: The SPIRIT of TRUTH

NOTE: Israel/Jews rejected the Plurality of Elohim when they crucified The SON

Facts say you are wrong. my previous post are undeniable facts.

 

[Button]

Incorrect. In Hebrew it is whether the verb being used is singular or plural that decides if the noun is plural or not. The reason it is Elohim with the plural ending of "im" is because the verb "make" is plural. So, the rules of Hebrew grammar demand that "God" is plural because it is not one singular person/being that is doing the making of humanity according to the text.

Be careful.
Those who don't recognize the Hebrew text may imply that what I highlighted in bold is Gnosticism. Not to be tolerated here.

 

[David in NJ]

Not a reasoned response David.....
If gravity does not exist then you are forced into a corner trying to explain its absense. The Universe functions on gravity and so does life on planet Earth....I can’t fall up...only down. I can’t drop something up...only down.

Birds can fly because they have wings, so do airplanes....without which flight would be impossible. How can you be led to believe something that is an integral part of our existence, becoming unexplainable unless we deny the truth of it.


Have you never heard of the plural of majesty? When Monarchs spoke of themselves in the first person, they used “the Royal WE”.....plural without being two or more persons. It was a magnification of their position as Ruler of their Kingdom....an indicator of their elevated status.

When Queen Victoria said...”WE are not amused” she was speaking about herself alone.

Using the plural of majesty is not suggesting that God is more than one entity.....Israel served only one God and He was never presented like the pagan gods, who were often portrayed in triads. (Deut 6:4)
These Triads are much older than Christianity.....but are in stark contrast to the monotheistic “one God” of Israel.
Jesus was Jewish and worshipped the same God as his people did. He called Yahweh his “God and Father”.
John 20:17...
To Mary Magdalene after his resurrection......”Jesus said to her: “Stop clinging to me, for I have not yet ascended to the Father. But go to my brothers and say to them, ‘I am ascending to my Father and your Father and to my God and your God.’”

The Jews rejected Jesus as “the son of God”....for the simple reason that he never once said he was “God” (with a capital “G”) but only ever identified himself as “the Son of God”. The Catholic church is responsible for the blatant mistranslation because they were the ones who introduced the concept of three gods in one person. The Jews never even heard of such a thing....therefore Jesus never taught it.

John 10:31-36 shows us what the Jews accused Jesus of being, and Jesus’ response shows his position in relation to his God and Father.....in a Greek Interlinear, read those verses and note the use of the definite article (ho)...where is it....and where it isn’t.....

“Once again the Jews picked up stones to stone him. 32  Jesus replied to them: “I displayed to you many fine works from the Father. For which of those works are you stoning me?” 33 The Jews answered him: “We are stoning you, not for a fine work, but for blasphemy; for you, although being a man, make yourself a god.” (theos) 34  Jesus answered them: “Is it not written in your Law, ‘I said: “You are gods”’? (theos) 35  If he called ‘gods’ (theos) those against whom the word of God (ho theos) came—and yet the scripture cannot be nullified— 36  do you say to me whom the Father sanctified and sent into the world, ‘You blaspheme,’ because I said, ‘I am God’s (ho theos) Son’?

The word “theos” is used there to identify the ancient judges in Israel, but without the definite article (ho) it simply means a “divine personage” or “one who represents a divine personage”. The definite article is also missing from the accusation made by the Jews, indicating that they were not accusing Jesus of claiming to be “God”, but claiming divinity as God’s Son.

The distinction between the true God, Yahweh and others who qualify to be ‘divinely authorized’ is shown by the use of the definite article....clearly visible in Greek but ignored in English to support a doctrine that didn’t exist in Bible times. These are Jesus’ own words, but mistranslated in all their Bibles.

The blind will never see it....because they don’t want to.....they can’t afford to.....this teaching is the very foundation of all false worship, including Christendom’s. A multiplicity of gods is worshipped in all of them....this one is just disguised by mistranslating Scripture....but it is the greatest deception of all...a distortion of the very person of the Almighty....the substitution of a foreign “god” for the “one true God” of Israel....a violation of the first Commandment. (Ex 20:3; John 17:3)

If the foundations of any structure are not sound, then when a storm or earthquake hits, the whole structure will collapse. In a world ruled by the devil, nothing is as it appears to be....

If gravity does not exist then you are forced into a corner trying to explain its absense.

God made it easy for us to know that 'gravity' is a lie.

Two ways:
#1 - WATER
WATER proves beyond any shadow of doubt that we are not on a wet ball spinning at 1,000mph

#2 - If gravity were fact, it could easily be measured thru scientific observable evidence 24/7 continuously on the earth.
Anyone can perform a true scientific experiment to prove that gravity does not exist.

Factual scientists admit that gravity is only a 'theory' and cannot be proven.
FACT: it does not exist except in the deception of the globalists who control the education, media, sciences and medical.

Do you believe God at His word??? = 1 John 5:19

 

[David in NJ]

Facts say you are wrong. my previous post are undeniable facts.

GOD Says your 'facts' are man-made excuses to keep Truth away from your heart, mind and soul.

FACT #1 - The FATHER never lies.
FACT #2 - The SON/JESUS never lies
FACT #3 - The HOLY SPIRIT, aka Spirit of Truth, never lies

What FACT do all THREE share???

 

[David in NJ]

Not a reasoned response David.....
If gravity does not exist then you are forced into a corner trying to explain its absense. The Universe functions on gravity and so does life on planet Earth....I can’t fall up...only down. I can’t drop something up...only down.

Birds can fly because they have wings, so do airplanes....without which flight would be impossible. How can you be led to believe something that is an integral part of our existence, becoming unexplainable unless we deny the truth of it.


Have you never heard of the plural of majesty? When Monarchs spoke of themselves in the first person, they used “the Royal WE”.....plural without being two or more persons. It was a magnification of their position as Ruler of their Kingdom....an indicator of their elevated status.

When Queen Victoria said...”WE are not amused” she was speaking about herself alone.

Using the plural of majesty is not suggesting that God is more than one entity.....Israel served only one God and He was never presented like the pagan gods, who were often portrayed in triads. (Deut 6:4)
These Triads are much older than Christianity.....but are in stark contrast to the monotheistic “one God” of Israel.
Jesus was Jewish and worshipped the same God as his people did. He called Yahweh his “God and Father”.
John 20:17...
To Mary Magdalene after his resurrection......”Jesus said to her: “Stop clinging to me, for I have not yet ascended to the Father. But go to my brothers and say to them, ‘I am ascending to my Father and your Father and to my God and your God.’”

The Jews rejected Jesus as “the son of God”....for the simple reason that he never once said he was “God” (with a capital “G”) but only ever identified himself as “the Son of God”. The Catholic church is responsible for the blatant mistranslation because they were the ones who introduced the concept of three gods in one person. The Jews never even heard of such a thing....therefore Jesus never taught it.

John 10:31-36 shows us what the Jews accused Jesus of being, and Jesus’ response shows his position in relation to his God and Father.....in a Greek Interlinear, read those verses and note the use of the definite article (ho)...where is it....and where it isn’t.....

“Once again the Jews picked up stones to stone him. 32  Jesus replied to them: “I displayed to you many fine works from the Father. For which of those works are you stoning me?” 33 The Jews answered him: “We are stoning you, not for a fine work, but for blasphemy; for you, although being a man, make yourself a god.” (theos) 34  Jesus answered them: “Is it not written in your Law, ‘I said: “You are gods”’? (theos) 35  If he called ‘gods’ (theos) those against whom the word of God (ho theos) came—and yet the scripture cannot be nullified— 36  do you say to me whom the Father sanctified and sent into the world, ‘You blaspheme,’ because I said, ‘I am God’s (ho theos) Son’?

The word “theos” is used there to identify the ancient judges in Israel, but without the definite article (ho) it simply means a “divine personage” or “one who represents a divine personage”. The definite article is also missing from the accusation made by the Jews, indicating that they were not accusing Jesus of claiming to be “God”, but claiming divinity as God’s Son.

The distinction between the true God, Yahweh and others who qualify to be ‘divinely authorized’ is shown by the use of the definite article....clearly visible in Greek but ignored in English to support a doctrine that didn’t exist in Bible times. These are Jesus’ own words, but mistranslated in all their Bibles.

The blind will never see it....because they don’t want to.....they can’t afford to.....this teaching is the very foundation of all false worship, including Christendom’s. A multiplicity of gods is worshipped in all of them....this one is just disguised by mistranslating Scripture....but it is the greatest deception of all...a distortion of the very person of the Almighty....the substitution of a foreign “god” for the “one true God” of Israel....a violation of the first Commandment. (Ex 20:3; John 17:3)

If the foundations of any structure are not sound, then when a storm or earthquake hits, the whole structure will collapse. In a world ruled by the devil, nothing is as it appears to be....

SEE Post 334

 

[JLB]

But Paul spoke of God in 2 Cor when he said two times that God of this Aion blinds people. The context there is never about satan. People just assume it's satan because blinding ppl sounds like something satan would do, and something God would not but it is indeed about God doing it for His purposes.

Do not love the world or the things in the world. If anyone loves the world, the love of the Father is not in him. For all that is in the world—the lust of the flesh, the lust of the eyes, and the pride of life—is not of the Father but is of the world. 1 John 2:15-16

• For all that is in the world—the lust of the flesh, the lust of the eyes, and the pride of life—is not of the Father but is of the world.
  

Please read this phrase…. is not of the Father but is of the world.

It’s not of the Father but of the world.


Surely you believe that God is not of the lust of the flesh, the lust of the eyes and the pride of life, right?


Brother please learn to rightly divide the truth.


God loves the people of the world who are lost and wants them to be saved.

while at the very same time God does not love the world system that is under the influence of Satan, which is the lust of the flesh, the lust of the eyes, and the pride of life.


We know that we are of God, and the whole world lies under the sway of the wicked one.
1 John 5:19

• the whole world lies under the sway of the wicked one.

Who do you believe is the wicked one; Satan or God?

 

[Button]

Do not love the world or the things in the world. If anyone loves the world, the love of the Father is not in him. For all that is in the world—the lust of the flesh, the lust of the eyes, and the pride of life—is not of the Father but is of the world. 1 John 2:15-16

• For all that is in the world—the lust of the flesh, the lust of the eyes, and the pride of life—is not of the Father but is of the world.

Please read this phrase…. is not of the Father but is of the world.

It’s not of the Father but of the world.


Surely you believe that God is not of the lust of the flesh, the lust of the eyes and the pride of life, right?


Brother please learn to rightly divide the truth.


God loves the people of the world who are lost and wants them to be saved.

while at the very same time God does not love the world system that is under the influence of Satan, which is the lust of the flesh, the lust of the eyes, and the pride of life.


We know that we are of God, and the whole world lies under the sway of the wicked one.
1 John 5:19

• the whole world lies under the sway of the wicked one.

Who do you believe is the wicked one; Satan or God?

Great question. I look forward to their answer.

 

[ewq1938]

Who do you believe is the wicked one; Satan or God?

Silly question, more strawman fallacies. satan is the wicked one. That does not change that Paul said God blinds people in 2 Cor.

 

[Aunty Jane]

Silly question, more strawman fallacies. satan is the wicked one. That does not change that Paul said God blinds people in 2 Cor.

What is the difference between “blinded eyes” and “blinded minds”? This is what you are comparing.

The difference is how we perceive things, not just visually but with the logic of the mind....a logic that is corrupted when people are asked to believe something illogical and unscriptural.....and they succumb.....hook, line, and sinker...without the subject matter being scriptutrally evaluated.

The mind is the center of our very being.....the place that processes information from all the senses.....when the mind is blinded nothing that comes through those senses, can be processed truthfully.

Once we entered that dark place of human sin, it was like someone trapped in a cave with no source of light.
They cannot see their hand in front of their face, so they poke around in that darkness trying to find the way out....attracted to any source of light.

The only one who can provide genuine light, is the one who is it’s source.....and he only provides that light to those who can be told an inconvenient truth without it being a difficult thing. Once the light is guiding you, you see the truth clearly and can forsake the lies you were raised with, or accepted from those who delivered it like a torch with a battery that is almost spent.

Remember what Jesus said to the Pharisees....?

“Woe to you, scribes and Pharisees, hypocrites! because you shut up the Kingdom of the heavens before men; for you yourselves do not go in, neither do you permit those on their way in to go in....

“Woe to you, scribes and Pharisees, hypocrites! because you travel over sea and dry land to make one proselyte, and when he becomes one, you make him a subject for Ge·henʹna twice as much so as yourselves.”

Matt 15:14...
“Let them be. Blind guides is what they are. If, then, a blind man guides a blind man, both will fall into a pit.”

The warning is there.....who is listening...?
Just because the majority accept something as truth....doesn’t mean it is. (Matt 7:13-14)

 

[Button]

Silly question, more strawman fallacies. satan is the wicked one. That does not change that Paul said God blinds people in 2 Cor.

That's true. God hardened Pharaohs heart before Moses arrived so that Pharaoh could not let God's people go.
God hardened other hearts according to scripture.

And who can forget what Jesus said in Matthew 13 and Mark 4.

 

[ewq1938]

What is the difference between “blinded eyes” and “blinded minds”? This is what you are comparing.

Same meaning.

2Co_3:14 But their minds were blinded: for until this day remaineth the same vail untaken away in the reading of the old testament; which vail is done away in Christ.

2Co_4:4 In whom the god of this world hath blinded the minds of them which believe not, lest the light of the glorious gospel of Christ, who is the image of God, should shine unto them.

Joh_12:40 He hath blinded their eyes, and hardened their heart; that they should not see with their eyes, nor understand with their heart, and be converted, and I should heal them.

Rom_11:7 What then? Israel hath not obtained that which he seeketh for; but the election hath obtained it, and the rest were blinded

God does the blinding in these verses.

 

[JLB]

Silly question, more strawman fallacies. satan is the wicked one. That does not change that Paul said God blinds people in 2 Cor.

Please answer the question.


We know that we are of God, and the whole world lies under the sway of the wicked one.
1 John 5:19

• the whole world lies under the sway of the wicked one.

Who do you believe is the wicked one; Satan or God?