A Conflict in the Old Testament- a Tip of the Iceberg?
In Matthew 22:36–40, Jesus says to a lawyer that the Old Testament Law and the Prophets are summed up in the two great commandments. Yet within the Old Testament, there seem to be inconsistencies which may be the cause of Jesus abiding by one Book of Moses while bypassing the subsent Books in certain instances.
Two examples come to mind. One Is the question of what we can and can’t eat. In Leviticus and Deuteronomy, there are prohibitions against eating pork and a bunch of other things. Yet in Matthew 15:11, Jesus says “it is not what goes into the mouth that defiles a person, but what comes out of the mouth; this defiles a person.” In this instance, Jesus seems to be bypassing these two Books of Moses by reaching back to the Book of Genesis. Here, in Genesis 9:3, after the Flood, God says to Noah, “Every moving thing that lives shall be food for you. And as I gave you the green plants, I give you everything.” Stands to reason that this would include eating pork. Does anyone wonder why Genesis 9:3 would not be grounds for Jesus’ basis for saying that it really doesn’t matter what we eat?
Another example is the subject of divorce. In Deuteronomy 24:1–4, it is prescribed that if a husband finds disfavor in a wife, he can give her a certificate of divorce, and she would be on her way out. And this point was brought up by one of the Pharisees to Jesus. In Matthew 19:4–6, Jesus responds “Have you not read that he who created them from the beginning made them male and female, and said, ‘Therefore a man shall leave his father and his mother and hold fast to his wife, and the two shall become one flesh’? So they are no longer two but one flesh. What therefore God has joined together, let not man separate.” Here, Jesus is referring to Genesis 2:24 which says, “Therefore a man shall leave his father and his mother and hold fast to his wife, and they shall become one flesh.” Again, Jesus reaches back to Genesis and bypasses the Laws spelled out in the following Books of Moses.
Regarding the Laws that God put forth, which in a sense seemed to be meant to restrict the Laws laid forth in Genesis, one can debate the purposes of such restrictions. Some may say it is to confirm the love of God and each other in the same manner as those who were freed from slavery in Exodus. Others might say that abiding by the Laws is a currency for payback to God’s liberating their ancestors from Egypt, or holding the descendants accountable it you will, since despite ancestors' sins, God did them a favor. This last rationalization seems to run counter to another Law in the Old Testament, found in Ezekiel 18:20 which says, “…The son shall not suffer for the iniquity of the father…the wickedness of the wicked shall be upon himself.” Considering what is mentioned here, Ezekiel 18:20 might be a justification for Jesus ignoring certain Laws in the Books following Genesis.
In Matthew 22:36–40, Jesus says to a lawyer that the Old Testament Law and the Prophets are summed up in the two great commandments. Yet within the Old Testament, there seem to be inconsistencies which may be the cause of Jesus abiding by one Book of Moses while bypassing the subsent Books in certain instances.
Two examples come to mind. One Is the question of what we can and can’t eat. In Leviticus and Deuteronomy, there are prohibitions against eating pork and a bunch of other things. Yet in Matthew 15:11, Jesus says “it is not what goes into the mouth that defiles a person, but what comes out of the mouth; this defiles a person.” In this instance, Jesus seems to be bypassing these two Books of Moses by reaching back to the Book of Genesis. Here, in Genesis 9:3, after the Flood, God says to Noah, “Every moving thing that lives shall be food for you. And as I gave you the green plants, I give you everything.” Stands to reason that this would include eating pork. Does anyone wonder why Genesis 9:3 would not be grounds for Jesus’ basis for saying that it really doesn’t matter what we eat?
Another example is the subject of divorce. In Deuteronomy 24:1–4, it is prescribed that if a husband finds disfavor in a wife, he can give her a certificate of divorce, and she would be on her way out. And this point was brought up by one of the Pharisees to Jesus. In Matthew 19:4–6, Jesus responds “Have you not read that he who created them from the beginning made them male and female, and said, ‘Therefore a man shall leave his father and his mother and hold fast to his wife, and the two shall become one flesh’? So they are no longer two but one flesh. What therefore God has joined together, let not man separate.” Here, Jesus is referring to Genesis 2:24 which says, “Therefore a man shall leave his father and his mother and hold fast to his wife, and they shall become one flesh.” Again, Jesus reaches back to Genesis and bypasses the Laws spelled out in the following Books of Moses.
Regarding the Laws that God put forth, which in a sense seemed to be meant to restrict the Laws laid forth in Genesis, one can debate the purposes of such restrictions. Some may say it is to confirm the love of God and each other in the same manner as those who were freed from slavery in Exodus. Others might say that abiding by the Laws is a currency for payback to God’s liberating their ancestors from Egypt, or holding the descendants accountable it you will, since despite ancestors' sins, God did them a favor. This last rationalization seems to run counter to another Law in the Old Testament, found in Ezekiel 18:20 which says, “…The son shall not suffer for the iniquity of the father…the wickedness of the wicked shall be upon himself.” Considering what is mentioned here, Ezekiel 18:20 might be a justification for Jesus ignoring certain Laws in the Books following Genesis.
