No prob. The Heruli were first overthrown by the Ostrogoths in 493 AD, by what was known as the Ostrogothic Papacy.
Interesting, so then according to this interpretation, are we currently in the time, times, and half a time?
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No prob. The Heruli were first overthrown by the Ostrogoths in 493 AD, by what was known as the Ostrogothic Papacy.
I haven’t tried to research this but here’s what someone else said about the man of sin sitting in the temple …There is definitely not. There is no other NT passage that states a man of sin, opposing God, claiming to be God, will sit in a physical or spiritual temple. Which is unfortunate.
If what you’re saying is true, that there is only one future day of the Lord coming, then why didn’t Paul just say something like “are you ignorant? We’re not going to be on earth after the day of the Lord”? There’s a problem because they thought the day of the Lord already happened despite 1 Thessalonians 4:14-17.
He/they didn't sit in the Church.I haven’t tried to research this but here’s what someone else said about the man of sin sitting in the temple …
This was fulfilled by the Zealot leader Menahem in Jerusalem in AD 66. He "exalted himself" over every other Zealot contender for Daniel's prophesied Messiah role. Every one of these competing Zealot leaders was essentially calling themselves "God" by trying to claim the title "King of the Jews".
In AD 66, Menahem murdered the moderate high priest Ananias who had been restraining him from rising to power in Jerusalem until then. Menahem then presented himself in the temple along with his armored troops, having dressed himself in King Herod's royal garments stolen from Masada. This was a clear declaration of Menahem's intention to exalt himself as "King of the Jews" by presenting himself as such in Jerusalem's temple. A few short weeks later, Menahem in turn was murdered by Ananias' son Eleazar in vengeance for his father's murder.
I'll defer to @CTK for that.Interesting, so then according to this interpretation, are we currently in the time, times, and half a time?
Well, I guess it depends on how these things are interpreted. I can’t find any other reference to something unclean even being in the temple (naos) with the naos still being holy. I’m thinking of Nadab and Abihu when they offered strange fire, that happened for a brief moment only before they were consumed. God and uncleanliness didn’t cohabitate in the naos.He/they didn't sit in the Church.
Those 2 things Paul that talked about were things that would happen before the second coming of Christ actually happened and not things that happen on the day He returns. But, as you said, they are ambiguous events, so why would I try to prove that Jesus didn't come in 70 AD by referring to those things? Imagine me trying to tell you that the mass apostasy didn't happen yet at that time. How do I prove such a thing that can only be spiritually discerned? There's no specific event that occurs which you can point to and say "Oh, look, the mass apostasy that Paul wrote about has started happening, so Jesus could come at any time at this point". So, I refer to tangible things that can't be missed as proof that Jesus didn't come in 70 AD instead. This shouldn't be hard to understand.I’ve always wondered this. Why does Paul explain it hasn’t happened yet by providing 2 other ambiguous events that must first occur, instead of the most obvious explanation, if in fact it’s to be understood in the way @Spiritual Israelite understands it.
If anytime I say the OD was fulfilled in 70ad, why is the response always “no it didn’t because Jesus didn’t literally descend, the dead didn’t physically come out of their tombs, and literal heaven and earth didn’t pass away?”, instead of quoting 2 Thessalonians 2?
It refers to a Church in which is found both true faith and apostasy. Thankfully, God has always preserved the former despite the latter. Isaiah 59:19. Thus God in His time raised up His standard through the Reformers, to liberate His true faithful Church from spiritual darkness and oppression.Well, I guess it depends on how these things are interpreted. I can’t find any other reference to something unclean even being in the temple (naos) with the naos still being holy. I’m thinking of Nadab and Abihu when they offered strange fire, that happened for a brief moment only before they were consumed. God and uncleanliness didn’t cohabitate in the naos.
Do you think the temple (naos) remains clean when the man of sin sits in it? Or does “temple” refer to something that was once clean but no longer is clean?
Do you know of any passages that say the naos has both truth and apostasy in it? I know the outer court of the temple can have both but I don’t think there are any references to the naos (holy of holies) itself containing both, except maybe 2 Thessalonians but that reference is debatable as to whether both truth and apostasy coexist in the naos.It refers to a Church in which is found both true faith and apostasy. Thankfully, God has always preserved the former despite the latter. Isaiah 59:19. Thus God in His time raised up His standard through the Reformers, to liberate His true faithful Church from spiritual darkness and oppression.
I'll defer to @CTK for that.
I'll defer to @CTK for that
Thank you very much for the comment... I certainly hope you will not consider my interpretation too extreme. I can assure you that there will not be enough space to provide you with the supporting information for this interpretation that is found within the earlier chapters of Daniel (as well as it fits like a glove with the prophecies in the later chapters of Daniel and in Revelation), but I will share it anyway. This is a cut / paste from the chapter 7 narrative in the Daniel commentary.I'll defer to @CTK for that.
I'll defer to @CTK for that.
except maybe 2 Thessalonians but that reference is debatable as to whether both truth and apostasy coexist in the naos.
Part 3 of 3I'll defer to @CTK for that.
Those 2 things Paul that talked about were things that would happen before the second coming of Christ actually happened and not things that happen on the day He returns. But, as you said, they are ambiguous events, so why would I try to prove that Jesus didn't come in 70 AD by referring to those things? Imagine me trying to tell you that the mass apostasy didn't happen yet at that time. How do I prove such a thing that can only be spiritually discerned? There's no specific event that occurs which you can point to and say "Oh, look, the mass apostasy that Paul wrote about has started happening, so Jesus could come at any time at this point". So, I refer to tangible things that can't be missed as proof that Jesus didn't come in 70 AD instead. This shouldn't be hard to understand.
Of course both exist since not everyone in the naos falls away. At some point the naos needs spiritually cleansed, thus that is explained in Daniel 8, for one. Except a lot of interpreters take those things in the literal sense and apply it to A4E. As if the naos meant in 2 Thessalonians 2:4 doesn't need to be cleansed at some point. If it never gets cleansed at some point, what then happens to the naos eventually? Is the naos fully destroyed or something? Keeping in mind that the naos meant here is meaning the 3rd temple, a temple made without hands. Plus, in the event anyone argues that naos is a literal brick and mortar temple in 2 Thess 2:4, good luck them proving that from the surrounding verses in that same chapter. Unless they can prove it via context pertaining to the surrounding verses, it is not sound hermeneutics to insist a literal temple is meant then have not one single verse in the entire chapter that supports this conclusion,
They wouldn't be worrying about it happening already if they remembered what Paul taught them about it. And it isn't as if Paul claimed that they all forgot what he told them about it. Paul was speaking hypothetically and telling them that if anyone told them something different about the day of the Lord than what Paul had taught, such as the day of the Lord already having come, then they should not believe it.no, the issue is this:
1.) if the coming is a literal bodily descension, and the resurrection is literally reanimated dead bodies flying up into the air, and the earth getting a literal new make over, after fire and fury then..
2.) why would the Thessalonians be worrying about it happening already if they understood as the events in point 1 ? and…
I would assume because there were things that were supposed to happen even before the day of the Lord comes, so it seems that he was saying that the day of the Lord couldn't have come yet when the things that are supposed to happen even before the day of the Lord haven't happened yet. I think you're making this more complicated than it is.3.) why would Paul not state the obvious (events in point 1) as to how he knew it hadn’t happened yet?
Why do you say this? I truly don't get it. Do you think it's safe to assume that Christ's coming and our being gathered to Him is a reference to the same event as 1 Thessalonians 4:14-17? I do. If you agree, then why would there not be enough context in 2 Thessalonians 2, with the understanding of what event Paul was referring to starting with the first verse, to determine if Paul was NOT talking about the physical temple? I don't believe it's reasonable to conclude that Christ's coming when we are gathered to Him in the air has occurred yet. So, with that still being a future event, we can know that the temple of God that Paul referred to is a temple that will exist in the future when Jesus returns. We both know that the temple of God that will exist when Jesus returns can't be a physical temple because God no longer dwells in temples made with hands (Acts 7:48, Acts 17:24) and we (the church) are the temple of God now.I would agree that There is not enough surrounding context, in 2 Thessalonians 2, to determine if Paul is talking about a physical temple. BUT I would also add there is not enough context, in 2 Thessalonians 2, to determine if Paul is NOT talking about the physical temple.
Here’s the thing, if a Preterist says the physical temple that was destroyed in 70AD was the temple in 2 Thessalonians 2:4, people will argue that the physical temple was no longer holy or naos(holy of holies) after the vail was torn, God left that temple.Of course both exist since not everyone in the naos falls away. At some point the naos needs spiritually cleansed, thus that is explained in Daniel 8, for one. Except a lot of interpreters take those things in the literal sense and apply it to A4E. As if the naos meant in 2 Thessalonians 2:4 doesn't need to be cleansed at some point. If it never gets cleansed at some point, what then happens to the naos eventually? Is the naos fully destroyed or something? Keeping in mind that the naos meant here is meaning the 3rd temple, a temple made without hands. Plus, in the event anyone argues that naos is a literal brick and mortar temple in 2 Thess 2:4, good luck them proving that from the surrounding verses in that same chapter. Unless they can prove it via context pertaining to the surrounding verses, it is not sound hermeneutics to insist a literal temple is meant then have not one single verse in the entire chapter that supports this conclusion,
Here’s the thing, if a Preterist says the physical temple that was destroyed in 70AD was the temple in 2 Thessalonians 2:4, people will argue that the physical temple was no longer holy or naos(holy of holies) after the vail was torn, God left that temple.
If that’s the case then it also has to be argued that God remains in the temple while at the same time the man of sin sits in it, else you have the same thing as the Preterist, God leaves the temple then the man of sin sits in it and the whole time it’s referred the temple or naos regardless of who’s sitting in it or what’s happening in it.
A falling away---apostasy---must happen first, and the man of sin, the antichrist, will be revealed. This immediately tells us who Paul is talking about people who turn away from the truth they once knew.
They have 'all deceivableness of unrighteousness'---open to lies and deception. They 'received not the love of the truth'---they rejected truth voluntarily. Notice--- these aren’t people who never knew the truth. They are those who once knew it and turned from it.
God sends them strong delusion--- He doesn’t need to make someone already lost believe a li---they’re already rejecting truth to begin with. The delusion is God allowing their rejection to run its course, strengthening their deception.
Their belief in lies is the direct result of their own rejection. It demonstrates the consequences of not loving the truth and stands in stark contrast to those who are saved, who embrace and love it.
Bottom line---this isn’t about all the lost in general. It’s about apostates---the ones described in verse 3 who fall away. Any other interpretation---saying God sends strong delusion to everyone who never believed---doesn’t make sense. He isn’t making the already lost loster--He’s confirming the choices of those who rejected Him after having known the truth first.
2:10 And with all deceivableness of unrighteousness in them that perish; because they received not the love of the truth, that they might be saved.
11 And for this cause God shall send them strong delusion, that they should believe a lie:
This makes zero sense, if for example, this is including atheists, or say unbelieving Jews. Why would God need to send them strong delusion, that they should believe a lie? Why would it take strong delusion in order for them to believe a lie when they already believe a lie to begin with? After all, they are atheists, are they not? They are unbelieving Jews, are they not. Neither of those examples = this---that they believe the truth. Right?
Therefore, in context, not out of context, the ones meant in verse 10 and 11 are clearly meaning the ones meant in verse 3 that fall away. None of this has anything to do with a literal brick and mortar temple in any way shape or form. Therefore, not meaning the 2nd temple before it was destroyed nor meaning a rebuilt one in the future. Yet verse 4 is clearly involving a temple. What other options are there if the temple can't mean a literal brick and mortar temple, nor a temple not made with hands(according to some interpreters)?
I, therefore, disagree that there is not enough context to determine which temple is meant. Obviously, the context that is present, none of it supports a literal brick and mortar temple. What should that be telling us? Assuming we set aside any doctrinal bias' and simply be objective about it? echo @claninja