Davidpt
Well-Known Member
At the regeneration of all things this earth and our bodies as we know it will be gone and Matthew 19:28 is the judging throne. The reigning from Revelation 20 will be expired by then.
Revelation 3:21 is just a promise that who overcomes will reign spiritually with Him. The context of the letter to the Laodiceans were that they were lukewarm and about to be rejected by Jesus.
Did you notice verse #14? “To the angel of the church in Laodicea write:
These are the words of the Amen, the faithful and true witness, the ruler of God’s creation.
Yes, Jesus reigns over all of Gods creation now
The context of Matthew 25:19 is the judgement day at the end of our world and the regeneration, after the reigning of Revelation 20.
Revelation 3:21 To him that overcometh will I grant to sit with me in my throne, even as I also overcame, and am set down with my Father in his throne.
What did Jesus say here? A) or B) below?
A) To him that overcometh will I grant to sit with me in my throne
B) To him that overcometh NOT, will I grant to sit with me in my throne
Why this matters is simple. I couldn't care less if some insist NOSAS is not Biblical. That does not make it unbiblical just because they say so. NOSAS is 100% Biblical, period. If you disagree then take it up with Jesus when He returns. Be sure to tell Him you disagree with Him as well. That assuming you disagree NOSAS is Biblical. But if you agree it is Biblical, it is then a moot point and not applicable to you.
Amil's position is basically this. When one is initially saved they then begin reigning with Christ a thousand years spiritually from that moment on. Then when they die they continue reigning a thousand years in a disembodied state in heaven. Thus far, there are no real issues here. Not until we factor this in--that not everyone that are initially saved remain saved.
Therefore, there is only one way to resolve this without causing a contradiction in Revelation 3:21, IMO.
The way to resolve this with there being zero contradictions is that no one is rewarded with sitting with Jesus in His throne until He returns first. The ones that fell away, per this scenario, Jesus never grants them this to begin with. Per Amil, Jesus also grants this to ones that fall away. Which is absurd that Jesus meant both A) and B) in Revelation 3:21 rather than just A).
Apparently then, whether you like it or not, whether you accept it or not, only Premil does not contradict Revelation 3:21 but Amil does, is how I see it.
This is not difficult. Either Jesus meant A) or He meant B). There are no other options. One can't have it both ways.
1 Corinthians 15:28 And when all things shall be subdued unto him, then shall the Son also himself be subject unto him that put all things under him, that God may be all in all.
Revelation 3:21 can't be meaning during when this is meaning. Right? Therefore, it has to fit somewhere before the time of that verse.
What are some options then?
1) prior to the millennium
2) during the millennium
3) during satan's little season after the millennium
4) during the GWTJ
IMO, the best fit is 2). And if Amil perhaps agrees, there is then the fact that Amil's proposed millennium doesn't resemble Premil's proposed millennium and vice versa. So why not use yet more Scripture to help determine when verse 21 is meaning? Such as Matthew 25:31. Per Amil we would be in the time of the GWTJ at that point, not during the millennium, if we use Matthew 25:31 as a timing marker of sorts. But per Premil that is exactly where we would be per Matthew 25:31, at the beginning of the millennium.
Per this scenario, if Matthew 25:31 helps us determine the timing of Revelation 3:21, and that both camps agree the millennium is the best fit for Revelation 3:21, we then end up with Matthew 25:31 benefiting Premil and not even benefiting Amil at all.
Keep in mind here, I'm being hypothetical, and that I'm not remotely insisting this equals Amil's view of things.
NOTE: I edited this post and cleaned it up somewhat
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