Meditate on this.See then that you walk circumspectly, not as fools but as wise, redeeming the time, because the days are evil.
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Meditate on this.See then that you walk circumspectly, not as fools but as wise, redeeming the time, because the days are evil.
Do you believe that Jesus is God?We agree that there is nothing wrong with praying to the Father.
A pattern emerges in Scripture in which everyone is essentially saying "Do what Jesus did." and Jesus prayed only to the Father and explicitly taught his disciples to do the same. … when did the first instruction of "Pray to Jesus" appear in church history?
Meditate on this.
In the appropriate circumstances I have no objection to speaking to Jesus, but in regards to prayer, I follow Jesus' instruction and example of praying to the Father in Jesus' name.But is it wrong to talk to Jesus (like Stephen did)?
No I do not.Do you believe that Jesus is God?
That has not been determined from the text.Since martyr Stephen prayed to Jesus, do you do the same?
I am not.Are you a Jehovah’s Witness?
"To preserve the traditional reading of the Hebrew" is a very politically correct way of saying it. "To preserve the Pharisee reading of the Hebrew," comes closer to the truth. "To prevent the Christian reading of the Hebrew" might be most honest.Thank you for your comments. I agree that the Masoretes did not remove vowels from the text. The original Hebrew Scriptures were written with consonants, and the vowel points (niqqud) were added many centuries later to preserve the traditional reading of Hebrew.
Uh... you. You definitely straw-manned his argument by re-stating it differently than what he said.your post #44 says: ''Iesous'
Who's lying marks?
now you just falsely accused = spiritual suicideUh... you. You definitely straw-manned his argument by re-stating it differently than what he said.
The question mark is actually the give-away.
What are your thoughts on the LXX?"To preserve the traditional reading of the Hebrew" is a very politically correct way of saying it. "To preserve the Pharisee reading of the Hebrew," comes closer to the truth. "To prevent the Christian reading of the Hebrew" might be most honest.
The original Hebrew scriptures were (are) often ambiguous. There's no capitalization. There are no spaces. There are, rarely, alternate forms of letters to let you know where one word ends and another begins. And, as mentioned, there are multiple vowel sounds that can be added to each letter, changing the meaning of the word.
The reader is expected to "rightly divide" the wall-of-text into separate words and then choose the correct meaning of each word, and add the correct vowel sounds to it. That's difficult, and leads to people reading the text with diverse meanings.
By the end of the 1st century, the early church and unrepentant Jews were at loggerheads over the meaning of many passages. These Jews (calling themselves Pharisees) sought to exclude any reading that pointed out Jesus as Messiah. Spearheaded by Rabbi Akiva, they began to produce Midrash - extensive commentary on the meaning of the Scriptures, placed in the margins of the Scriptures themselves. This practice continued for 8 centuries.
Adding niqqud and spaces to the text made the extensive commentary unnecessary. All the divisions of the text into words were already done. All the choosing of meanings for each word, also already done. No ambiguity. Only the meaning that the Pharisees want you to see.
You probably already know this, but... I enjoy talking about this subject.![]()
It’s more the opposite. Those who deny the Biblical fact that there is no verse in Scripture to pray to Jesus have the agenda.There's the heart of the matter.
Notice that the ones who promote not praying to Jesus are the ones who don't believe Jesus' deity. There's the agenda.
Much love!
Odd that this is not everyone’s position. I follow Jesus but do t do what he says regarding to whom I Should pray. How does that make sense?In the appropriate circumstances I have no objection to speaking to Jesus, but in regards to prayer, I follow Jesus' instruction and example of praying to the Father in Jesus' name.
Would it be more accurate to say that the native speakers understood, but that as ancient Hebrew is a dead language, that certainty has been lost?The original Hebrew scriptures were (are) often ambiguous.
As you wish.It’s more the opposite. Those who deny the Biblical fact that there is no verse in Scripture to pray to Jesus have the agenda.
You asked 'who is lying?' between you and marks. Here's my advice for you:You need some sound Holy Spirit advice:
a.) Never accuse without having clear evidence = in this case, of such which your heart desires
b.) There was no "straw-man" but a very CLEAR & PRECISE question which you also sinned against via false accusation
The answer to the question (which is not marks' question, but a strawman you've re-framed his statement into) is that I don't know. Nobody else who's alive now knows, including you.So now i ask you from the Holy Spirit of Truth = Did the angel speak Greek to Mary?
You asked 'who is lying?' between you and marks. Here's my advice for you:
a.) Don't ask if you don't want the answer, buddy!
And the evidence? It's abundantly clear. You've repeated the logical fallacy in this post:
The answer to the question (which is not marks' question, but a strawman you've re-framed his statement into) is that I don't know. Nobody else who's alive now knows, including you.
It's better than the Masoretic.What are your thoughts on the LXX?
Much love!
Certainty wasn't intended.Would it be more accurate to say that the native speakers understood, but that as ancient Hebrew is a dead language, that certainty has been lost?
Jesus only prayed to His Father in heaven. I agree! Why would Jesus pray to Himself?We agree that there is nothing wrong with praying to the Father. I would say that support for praying to the Father only is pretty strong. Aside from the direct instruction to do so, when Jesus prayed he also only ever prayed to the Father. After that, throughout the rest of the New Testament, the apostles stated to imitate Jesus.
Yes, I agree we are to imitate Jesus. So, what you are saying then is to do only what He did, but not do what He said? He said-Peter said "follow in His steps." in 1 Peter 2:21.
Jesus said his actions are to be imitated "For I have given you an example, that you should do just as I have done for you." in John 13:13-15. "If you keep My commandments, you will abide in My love" in John 15:10.
Paul said imitate Christ in 1 Cor. 11:1. To have the mind of Jesus in Phil. 2:5.
John said to walk as Jesus walked in 1 John 2:6.
A pattern emerges in Scripture in which everyone is essentially saying "Do what Jesus did." and Jesus prayed only to the Father and explicitly taught his disciples to do the same. I understand your perspective and for the sake of discussion, let's assume that there were a few instances in which Jesus was addressed after his resurrection. We're still left with addressing the instruction Jesus left for his followers and the broadly-taught teachings to imitate Jesus, so from my perspective, the force of this means that what Jesus taught to do and the examples he provided carry the greater weight. So my question is, if you're saying do something different than what Jesus taught and did, then why should we do what you say, and when did the first instruction of "Pray to Jesus" appear in church history?
Wasn't it translated BC?It was produced by Christians. It's better when your Holy book is produced by your people, rather than the enemy of your people. It's centuries earlier, as well.
It's a stranglehold.There's the heart of the matter.
Notice that the ones who promote not praying to Jesus are the ones who don't believe Jesus' deity. There's the agenda.
Much love!